Sunday, May 8, 2016

IBPS CRP-V Specialist Officer (Marketing) Exam Professional Knowledge Solved Paper (Exam Held on 02-02-2016)

1. A tangible product that the consumer feels comfortable purchasing without gathering additional information and then actually buys with minimum of effort is termed a(n)– 
(a) Shopping good (b) Convenience good (c) Business product (d) Specially good (e) Unsought good (Ans : b)

2. The process of dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers who have different needs, characteristics or behaviours and who might require separate products or marketing programs is called– 
(a) Market segmentation (b) Market positioning (c) Market differentiation (d) Market targeting (e) Marketing mix (Ans : a)

3. ………. is not a stage of product life cycle in marketing. 
(a) Introduction (b) Maturity (c) Growth (d) Decline (e) Planning (Ans : e)

4. ……….Which of the following is not a characteristic important in influencing an innovator's rate of adoption? 
(a) Organisation type of the innovator (b) Compatibility (c) Divisibility (d) Communicability (e) Complexity (Ans : a)

5. The financial contracts whose values are obtained from the values of underlying assets are– 
(a) mortgage (b) commercial papers (c) stocks (d) derivatives (e) bonds (Ans : d)

6. All of the following are considered to be broad market-follower strategies except– 
(a) innovator (b) imitator (c) cloner (d) counterteller (e) adapter (Ans : a)

7. A company has four choices when it comes to developing brands. Which one of the following is not one among them? 
(a) New brands (b) Multi brands (c) Brand extension (d) Line extension (e) Brand sponsoring (Ans : e)

8. ………. is a demand state where consumer may share a strong need that cannot be satisfied by an existing model. 
(a) Declining demand (b) Irregular demand (c) Negative demand (d) Non-existent demand (e) Latent demand (Ans : e)

9. ………. is the development, design and implementation of marketing programme, processes and activities that recognises the breadth and inter-dependencies of today's marketing environment. 
(a) Niche marketing (b) Supply chain marketing (c) Holistic marketing (d) Relationship marketing (e) Demand-centred marketing (Ans : c)

10. The ………. holds that marketing strategy should deliver value to customers in a way that maintain or improve both the consumer's and society's well-being. 
(a) societal marketing concept (b) society centered marketing (c) customer centered marketing 
(d) focused business model (e) production centered business (Ans : a)

11. Major oil producers carryon oil exploration, oil drilling, oil refining, chemical manufacture and service-station operation. When an organisation does all of these separate tasks distribution channel they can be said to have achieved what is called– 
(a) Parallel marketing (b) Horizontal integration (c) Vertical integration 
(d) Concentric integration (e) Conglomerate marketing (Ans : c)

12. Which of the following describes the tendency of people to interpret information in a way that will support what they already believe? 
(a) Selective creativity (b) Selective distortion (c) Selective matching 
(d) Selective attraction (e) Selective attribute (Ans : b)

13. The ………. stage of a product is characterised as being one where there is period of rapid climb in sales and substantial profit improvement. 
(a) introduction (b) decline (c) maturity (d) saturation (e) growth (Ans : e)

14. The discomfort caused by post purchase conflict is called– 
(a) Dissatisfaction (b) Cognitive dissonance (c) Post purchase behaviour (d) Buyer's remorse (e) Comparative tension (Ans : b)

15. ………. is the study of how individuals, groups and organisations select, buy, use and dispose of goods, services, ideas or experiences to satisfy their needs and wants. 
(a) Psychology (b) Product differentiation (c) Psychographic segmentation (d) Target marketing (e) Consumer behaviour (Ans : e)

16. Mutual Funds are regulated in the country by– 
(a) IRDAI (b) Association of Mutual Funds of India (AMFI) (c) NABARD 
(d) Securities and Exchange Board of India (e) Reserve Bank of India (Ans : d)

17. Situation in which a firm introduces new products to stimulate sales but the profit comes at the expense of other products sold by that firm is called– 
(a) repositioning (b) push marketing (c) differentiated marketing (d) cannibalisation (e) cartelisation (Ans : d)

18. Cultivating opinion leaders and getting them to spread information about a product or service to others in their communities is– 
(a) Buzz marketing (b) Leader marketing (c) Niche marketing (d) Complex marketing (e) Selective marketing (Ans : e)

19. Marketing management is defined as– 
(a) monitoring the profitability of the' company's products and services (b) the art and science of choosing target markets and building profitable relationships with them 
(c) managing the market process (d) developing marketing strategies to move the company forward 
(e) selecting target markets to deploy marketers (Ans : c)

20. The measure of the brand's ability to capture consumer performance and loyalty is termed as– 
(a) Brand superiority (b) Brand equity (c) Brand version (d) Brand loyalty (e) Brand preference (Ans : d)

21. Mission statements are at their best when they reflect a ………. to an almost impossible dream that provides direction for the next 10 to 30 years. 
(a) market (b) strength (c) competency (d) vision (e) value (Ans : d)

22. A strategy in which the initial price of the product is set low in relation to the target market's range of expected prices is termed as– 
(a) Market skimming pricing (b) Old pricing (c) Discount market pricing 
(d) Market penetration pricing (e) Special market pricing (Ans : d)

23. A group of tradition bound consumers who are the tool to adapt an innovation is called as– 
(a) Challengers (b) Leaders (c) Innovators (d) Laggards (e) Loyal agents (Ans : c)

24. Low prices on products for which you have accurate price knowledge lets you know that the product has to be a bargain. This type of pricing is termed as– 
(a) Reference pricing (b) Psychological pricing (c) Volume pricing (d) Promotional pricing (e) Signpost pricing (Ans : d)

25. The want satisfying power of a product is called its– 
(a) price (b) utility (c) bond (d) purpose (e) goal (Ans : b)

26. Based on the rates firms charge in the target market in a specific industry, they are classified as following except in a– 
(a) Market challenger (b) Market plotter (c) Market leader (d) Market nicher (e) Market follower (Ans : b)

27. TQM approach in which all the people of the company are involved in constantly improving the performance of products, services and business processes. TQM stands for– 
(a) Total Quality Management (b) Total Quality Marketing (c) Total Quantity Management 
(d) Total Queries Management (e) Total Quality Manipulation (Ans : a)

28. When backed by buying power, wants become 
(a) self-esteem needs (b) demand (c) exchanges (d) physical needs (e) social needs (Ans : b)

29. The philosophy of product centered marketing' concept is– 
(a) right products for the customers (b) make and sell (c) make what the market wants 
(d) sense and respond (e) selling on product benefits (Ans : e)

30. The customer's evaluation of the difference between all the benefits and all the costs of a market offering relative to those of competing offers is called 
(a) Customer perceived value (b) Customer expectation (c) Customer satisfaction 
(d) Customer loyalty (e) Customer relationship (Ans : a)

31. Button market is where– 
(a) capital is disposed (b) gold is purchased and sold (c) shares are purchased 
(d) production of silver takes place (e) investment are made (Ans : e)

32. Especially in large firms, a sales force frequently is specialised in some organisational fashion. Which of the following is not one of such specialisations? 
(a) Customer specialisation (b) Major accounts specialisatibn (c) Product specialisation 
(d) Geographic specialisatlon (e) Economic order specialisation (Ans : e)

33. Greater consumer control means that, in building customer relationships, companies can no longer rely on marketing by intrusion. The most practiced marketing is– 
(a) conversion (b) delivery (c) retention (d) attraction (e) attention (Ans : c)

34. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, sense of belonging is grouped in– 
(a) Esteem needs (b) Social needs (c) Safety needs (d) Physiological needs (e) Self-actualisation needs (Ans : b)

35. Michael Porter has identified five forces that determine the intrinsic long-run attractiveness of a market segment. Which of the following would not be among Porter's five forces? 
(a) Threat of buyers' growing bargaining power (b) Threat of substitute products (c) Threat of technological partners 
(d) Threat of intense segment rivalry (e) Threat of new entrants (Ans : c)

36. The unplanned static or distortion during the communication process, which results in the receivers' getting a different message then the one that the sender sent is the– 
(a) response (b) feedback (c) noise (d) decoding (e) encoding (Ans : c)

37. If-a MNC like Nestle varied the elements of the marketing mix to suit the countries in which it sold its products, which type of strategy would it be following? 
(a) Differentiated (b) Undifferentiated (c) Standardised (d) Adapted (e) Concentrated (Ans : d)

38. Under which of the following company orientations toward the market place would we expect to get 'better economical' falacy? 
(a) Marketing concept (b) Holistic marketing concept (c) Production concept 
(d) Selling concept (e) Product concept (Ans : c)

39. If a company focuses on only one or a few market segments instead of small share of a large market, the same is– 
(a) Segment marketing (b) Conceptual marketing (c) Mass marketing (d) Micro marketing (e) Niche marketing (Ans : e)

40. An estimate the total financial value of the brand is– 
(a) Brand valuation (b) Brand tracking (c) Brand auditing (d) Brand partitioning (e) Brand equity (Ans : a)

41. The total combined customer value of all the company's current and potential customers is called– 
(a) Customer share (b) Customer delight (c) Customer loyalty (d) Customer orientation (e) Customer equity (Ans : e)

42. We can say that a ………. has three characteristics. (1) It is a source of competitive advantage in that it makes a significant contribution to perceived customer benefits; (2) It has application in a wide variety of markets, and (3) It is difficult for competitors to imitate. 
(a) strategic business unit (b) core competency (c) business strategy (d) winning strategy (e) core technology (Ans : b)

43. Which demographic segmentation divides buyers into different groups based on social class, lifestyle or personality characteristics? 
(a) Age and life cycle segmentation (b) Gender segmentation (c) Age segmentation 
(d) Psycho graphic segmentation (e) Income segmentation (Ans : d)

44. The internet version of word of mouth marketing is termed as– 
(a) Viral marketing (b) Web marketing (c) Channel marketing (d) Network marketing (e) Virtual marketing (Ans : a)

45. ………. is the development, interpretation and communication of decision oriented information to be used in all phases of marketing process. 
(a) Marketing forecast (b) Market intelligence (c) Market planning 
(d) Marketing research (e) Marketing information system (Ans : e)

46. GATT is more than 60 years old treaty designed to promote world trade by reducing tariff and other international trade barriers. GATT stands for– 
(a) General Aspects on Tariff and Trade (b) General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (c) Geneva Agreement on Trade and Tariff 
(d) General Allowance for Trade and Tariff (e) Geneva Agreement on Traffic or Trade (Ans : b)

47. People differ greatly in their readiness to try new products. Which of the following do not belong to the adapter categorisation on the basis of relation time of adopter of innovators? 
(a) Innovators (b) Laggards (c) Early majority (d) Late majority (e) Super majority (Ans : b)

48. As per BCG Matrix of classification of SBUs of an organisation, Cash cows are SBUs that typically generate– 
(a) large Awareness levels but few sales (b) problems for product managers often (c) high industry growth 
(d) more cash than that can be invested profitably in its own business (e) paper losses in the long run (Ans : c)

49. A strategy of pricing involves using price as in a competitive weapon in order to push competitors out of market or eliminate competitors. 
(a) bargain (b) psychological (c) premium (d) advanced (e) predatory (Ans : e)

50. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is an autonomous apex– 
(a) consultative body (b) statutory body (c) advisory body (d) cooperative body (e) corporate body (Ans : b)

Financial Awareness Practice Questions for Bank Exams

1. In the case of granting loan against a life insurance policy, the banker should see:
a) The existence of insurable interest
b) The surrender value
c) The admission of age
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

2. In Mutual Funds, NAV is the price of ___
a) Entire fund value
b) One unit of a fund
c) Surrender value
d) Average value of shares
e) Dividends paid in a year

3. New Lending Rate on Bank Loans is now calculated as per:
a) Bench Mark Prime Lending Rate (BPLR)
b) Base Rate
c) Prime Lending Rate (PLR)
d) Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)
e) Risk Based Rate.

4. According to new norms anyone would be able to register a company in India in how many days?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 7
d) 1
e) 3

5. Naina Lal Kidwai is an independent non-executive director of:
a) Altico Capital
b) Reliance Capital
c) Infrastructure Development Finance Company
d) Shriram Transport Finance
e) None of the above

6. Which Indian bank has launched iWork@Home programme for its women employees?
b) Axis bank
c) ICICI Bank
d) IDBI Bank
e) SBI

7. Who is the present MD and CEO of Multi Commodity Exchange?
a) Balasubramaniam Venkatramani
b) Mrugank Paranjape
c) Manoj Vaish
d) Praveen Kumar Singhal
e) Mansi Aggarwal

8. Flipkart has launched an online wallet-Flipkart Money. What purpose does E-wallet serve?
a) E-wallet is an online prepaid account under which user can deposit money in advance and can be used as payment
b) E-wallet is an offline prepaid account where one can stock money to be used when required
c) E-wallet is an online prepaid account under which user can purchase online and they can pay later.
d) E-wallet is a feature of web browser that allows a user to store personal details for identification purpose
e) None of the above

9. The bank does not open a saving account in the name of:
a) Government Departments
b) Municipal Corporations/ Committees
c) Panchayat Samities
d) State Housing Boards
e) All the above

10. The Reserve Bank of India publishes the classification of demand deposits with the commercial banks. Which of the following are included in demand deposits?
a) Fixed deposits held as security for advances is a classification of time deposits
b) Deposits held as security for advances which are repayable on demand
c) Current deposits
d) Demand liabilities portion of saving bank deposits
e) b, c and d

11. Time deposits include:
a) Fixed deposits
b) Cash certificates, recurring deposits
c) Time liabilities portion of saving bank deposits
d) Staff security deposits
e) All of the above

12. Which of the following is included in the banking reforms in India?
a) To strengthen risk management
b) Providing easy credit to all
c) Provide guaranteed subsidy from the government
d) Both b and c
e) None of the above

13. Which of the following Nation is not a member country of Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)?
a) India
b) Kazakhstan
c) Tajikistan
 d) China
e) Russia

14. What is the purpose for RBI allowing RRBs to open their branches in tier-II cities without asking
for permit?
a) To empower RRBs with the powers that RBI has
b) To increase the reach of banking service in tier-II cities.
c) To generate money from tier-II cities
d) To increase the number of RRBs more than other commercial bank in tier-II cities
e) None of the above

15. Which of the following is not associated with risks related to risk management in banks?
a) Credit risk
b) Market risk
c) Fund risk
d) Operational risk
e) None of the these

16. Which was the first Indian commercial bank wholly owned and managed by Indians opened in
the year 1911?
a) Bank of Madras
b) Central Bank of India
c) State Bank of India
d) Hindustan Bank
e) Union Bank of India

17. Financial activities tax and Financial stability contribution is proposed by ?
a) G-8
b) SAARC Summit (second)
c) G-20
d) SAARC Summit (First)
e) None of the above

18. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about promissory note?
a) It is always in writing
b) It has an unconditional undertaking called promise
c) The promise is to pay money
d) The money is to be pay money
e) All the above

19. On recommendation in which of the following committee NABARD was established?
a) C. Rangarajan Committee
b) Vijay Kelkar Committee
c) Sivaraman Committee
d) Chelliah Committee
e) None of the above

20. Money lent in the money market for one day is referred as:
a) Notice money
b) Long term loan
c) Short term loan
d) Call money
e) None of these

21. Returning a particular cheque of a customer unpaid by the bank is known as:
a) Bouncing of cheque
b) Dishonour of cheque
c) Cancellation of cheque
d) Honouring of cheque
e) None of these

22. Apex Bank for agriculture is___
a) RBI
e) None of these

23. Dow Jones is the stock index of 30 significant stocks traded in__
a) India
b) Singapore
c) London
d) None of these
e) New York

24. Expand the term ALM used in Banking/Finance sector?
a) Asset Liability Mismatch
b) Asset Liability Maturity
c) Asset Liability Management
d) Asset Liability Manpower
e) None of these

25. The main advantages of core banking Solutions are:
a) Branches are connected to a central host
b) Branch automation modules and delivery channels are incorporated
c) Transactions are done centrally and online
d) A Branch Customer is converted into a Bank Customer
e) All of above

26. The short fall in Prior Sector Lending by banks is to be deposited with RIDF. Which of the following statement is not correct with regard to RIDF?
a) Domestic banks deposit short fall in priority sector lending targets, or weaker section lending
or agriculture lending in RIDF.
b) RIDF corpus is estimated annually
c) Interest is Bank Rate less 2% to 4% and period of deposit for RDIF is determined by RBI
d) Amount deposited in RIDF by banks is not eligible investment for priority sector classification
e) None of the above

27. Maximum compensation an Ombudsman is empowered to award in respect of deficiency in service of the Credit Card operations is:
a) Rs. 50,000
b) Rs.1 lack
c) Rs. 5 lack
d) Rs. 10 lack
e) Rs 50,000

28. Which of the following organisation was established as a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India with the purpose of providing long term industrial finance?
a) ICICI Ltd.
b) IDBI Ltd.
c) IFCI Ltd.
d) Development Credit Bank of India (DCB)
e) None of the above

29. Treasury bills are issued by ____ through ___ for maturities of 91 days, 182 days and 364 days for pre-determined amounts.
c) RBI, Exim bank
d) GOI, Exim bank

30. Liquidity with a banker means:
a) Cash on Hand
b) Cash and Bank balances
c) Short-term current assets to convert into cash
d) All of above
e) None of the above

31. Cardinal principles of lending are
a) Safety and liquidity
b) Profitability and diversification of risks
c) Purpose and security
d) Only a and c
e) All of a to c

32. Working capital requirement depends upon___?
a) Level of activity
b) Types of business carried
c) Nature of Production cycle
d) All the above
e) None

33. Which of the following statements regarding CP is not correct?
a) CP is a negotiable instrument
b) CP is issued in the form of a promissory note.
c) Banks can invest in CP if it is issued in demat form
d) CP, being a tradable instrument, carries liquidity risk.
e) Minimum amount of CP should be Rs. 5.00 lack

34. A minor for whom the court has appointed a guardian attains majority on completion of:
a) 21 years
b) 18 years
c) 15 years
d) 17 years
e) 20 years

35. Garnishee order is issued by a__
a) Police officer
b) Revenue officer
c) CID
d) Bank
e) Court

36. The main function of an Asset Management Company is to:
a) Hold the securities of various schemes
b) Manage the funds by making investments in various types of securities
c) Hold its property for the benefit of the unit holders
d) Act on behalf of SEBI
e) All the above

37. The first insurance company was started in India in 1818 at:
a) Kolkata
b) Chennai
c) Mumbai
d) New Delhi
e) Allahabad

38. CIBIL as a credit Information Agency caters to:
a) Consumer segments
b) Commercial segments
c) Both commercial and consumer segments
d) Nationalized Banks only
e) Private Banks only

1) d 2) b 3) d 4) d 5) a 6) c 7) b 8) a 9) e 10) a
11) e 12) a 13) a 14) b 15) c 16) b 17) c 18) e 19) c 20) d
21) b 22) b 23) e 24) c 25) e 26) d 27) b 28) b 29) b 30) d
31) e 32) d 33) d 34) a 35) e 36) b 37) a 38) c

Sunday, April 24, 2016

NICL AO Exam General Awareness Solved Paper (Exam Held On: 12-04-2015)

1. Which of the following is the largest general insurance company of India on the basis of gross premium collection inclusive of foreign operations? 
(a) United India Insurance Company Limited (b) Oriental Fire and General Insurance Company Limited 
(c) New India Assurance Company Limited (d) Agriculture Insurance Company of India 
(e) National Insurance Company Limited (Ans : c)

2. The proposed Micro Units Development Refinance Agency (MUDRA Bank) will have a Credit Guarantee corpus of– 
(a) Rs. 15,000 cr (b) Rs. 10,000 cr (c) Rs. 3,000 cr (d) Rs. 20,000 cr (e) Rs. 5,000 cr (Ans : c)

3. The chemical name of 'caustic soda'is– 
(a) Potassium Hydroxide (b) Aluminium Oxide (c) Sodium Hydroxide (d) Sodium Chloride (e) Sodium Bicarbonate (Ans : c)

4. The term 'Front-end load' is associated with– 
(a) Term Deposits (b) Term Loans (c) Insurance Policies (d) Mutual Funds (e) Government Securities (Ans : d)

5. When an insurer passes some part of or all risks to another insurer called Reinsurer, this type of insurance is called– 
(a) Self Insurance (b) Dual Insurance (c) Void Insurance (d) Two Fold Insurance (e) Re-insurance (Ans : e)

6. The capital of the 'People's Republic of China' is– 
(a) Taiwan (b) Hong Kong (c) Shanghai (d) Beijing (e) Shenzhen (Ans : d)

7. A complaint can be lodged with the insurance ombudsman by an aggrieved– 
(a) Corporate Policy Holder (b) Trust/Association holding an Insurance Policy (c) Sole-Proprietor of a firm holding the Insurance Policy 
(d) Individual Policy holder (e) Partnership Firm (Ans : d)

8. Which of the following teams won the Santosh Trophy, the main state competition in Indian Football? 
(a) Punjab (b) Assam (c) Services (d) West Bengal (e) Maharashtra (Ans : c)

9 "Joko Widodo" has been elected as President of– 
(a) Indonesia (b) Mexico (c) Argentina (d) Ukraine (e) Austria (Ans : a)

10. The FIBA cup is associated with which among the following sports ? 
(a) Table Tennis (b) Basketball (c) Hockey (d) Football (e) Cricket (Ans : b)

11. An agency which holds electronic records of insurance policies issued to individuals is known as– 
(a) Insurance Depository (b) Insurance Attorney (c) Stock Insurance Company 
(d) Insurance Actuary (e) Insurance Repository (Ans : e)

12. A life insurance policy which provides coverage at a fixed rate of payments for a limited period of time is known as– 
(a) Whole Life Insurance (b) Variable Universal Life Insurance (c) Term Life Insurance 
(d) Universal Life Insurance (e) Permanent Life Insurance (Ans : c)

13. 'Tribhuvan International Airport' is situated in–
(a) Port Louis, Mauritius (b) Paro, Bhutan (c) Jakarta, Indonesia (d) Kathmandu, Nepal (e) Bangkok, Thailand (Ans : d)

14. Under the recently re-launched "Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana" (VPBY) for senior citizens, the insured person can receive a monthly pension ranging from– 
(a) Other than those given as options (b) Rs. 100/- to Rs. 5,000/- (c) Rs. 500/- to Rs. 5,000/- 
(d) Rs. 1,000/- to Rs. 10,000/- (e) Rs. 50/- to Rs. 500/- (Ans : c)

15. Lia Van Leer of Israel who recently died at the age of 90 years is a pioneering figure in the field of– 
(a) Cultural Studies (b) Farm Productivity and Profitability (c) Human Computer Protection 
(d) Film Programming and Archiving (e) Film Photography (Ans : d)

16. Against-a global average of 50% the female labour force participation rate in India is found to be– 
(a) 23% (b) 53% (c) 33% (d) 63% (e) 13% (Ans : c)

17. Who amongst the following has recently been appointed by the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region as the Brand Ambassador of the North East region ? 
(a) Mary Kom (b) Sarjubala Devi (c) Suman Bala Devi (d) M. Thomas Meiter (e) Likhmabam Sushila (Ans : a)

18. The Cabinet Minister for Civil Aviation in the Union Council of Ministers is– 
(a) Shri Ananth Kumar (b) Shri Radha Mohan Singh (c) Shri Anant Geete (d) Shri Jual Oram (e) Shri Ashok Gajapati Raju (Ans : e)

19. It is a joint venture between Housing Development Finance Corporation (HDFC), one of India's leading housing finance institution and– 
(a) Standard Life (b) Prudential Life (c) Sun Life (d) Max Life (e) Aviva India (Ans : a)

20. According to the Stockholm International Peace - Research Institute (SIPRI), which one of the following is the world's biggest importer of arms during the five year period from 2010 to 2014 ? 
(a) India (b) Iran (c) Germany (d) Pakistan (e) China (Ans : a)

21. PM recently inaugurated the first of the eight Coastal Surveillance Radar Systems (CSRS) being set up by India in which of the following countries? 
(a) Mauritius (b) Sri Lanka (c) Maldives (d) Seychelles (e) Philippines (Ans : d)

22. The traditional new year celebrations 'Rongali Bihu' which is celebrated with fun in abundance by all people irrespective of caste, creed and belief in the Indian state of–
(a) Goa (b) Assam (c) Telangana (d) Andhra (e) Odisha (Ans : b)

23. The 'Kaziranga National Park' is situated in the Indian state of– 
(a) Assam (b) West Bengal (c) Uttarakhand (d) Chattisgarh (e) Bihar (Ans : a)

24. The Japanese encephalitis, a virus borne disease, which claimed many deaths in India recently, affects which part of the human body? 
(a) Kidney (b) Brain (c) Lungs (d) Intestine (e) Heart (Ans : b)

25. The "Pudhu Vazhvu Scheme" is an empowerment and poverty reduction initiative launched by –
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra (c) Kerala (d) West Bengal (e) Telangana (Ans : a)

26. Which of the following noted Gandhians, is known - for his rendition of Gandhi katha – stories on the Mahatma's life, which he took across the world and received much acclaim for it? 
(a) S. N. Subbarao (b) Rajmohan Gandhi (c) Mahadev Desai (d) Narayan Bhai Desai (e) Chandi Prasad Bhatt (Ans : d)

27. Which of the following organization processes insurance claims or certain aspects of employee benefit plans for a separate entity? 
(a) Insurance Broker (b) Insurance Surveyor (c) Third Party Owner (d) Insurance Agent (e) Third Party Administrator (Ans : e)

28. The 'National De-worming Day' is observed in India every year on– 
(a) 10th June (b) 10th April (c) 10th March (d) 10th February (e) 10th May (Ans : d)

29. Under the Sukanya Samridhi Yojana (SSY), the interest is payable by the Bank at the rate of– 
(a) 8% (b) 8.7% (c) 8.5% (d) 8.9% (e) 9.2% (Ans : e)

30. What is the minimum number of employees is a firm covered by the retirement fund body Employees Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) for providing social security net? 
(a) Ten (b) Twenty (c) Thirty (d) Fifteen (e) Forty (Ans : b)

31. The Transatlantic Trade and Investment Partnership (TTIP), is a trade and investment agreement under negotiation between the– 
(a) European Union and United States (b) European Union and India (c) "World Trade Organization and India" 
(d) European Union and China (e) India and United States (Ans : a)

32. The currency of the 'Republic of Mauritius' is– 
(a) Other than those given as options (b) Mauritian Riya (c) Mauritian Rial (d) Mauritian Rupee (e) Mauritian Rufiyaa (Ans : d)

33. "One Life is Not Enough" is an autobiography of–. 
(a) Prime Minister Narendra Modi (b) Natwar Singh (c) Dr. Manmohan Singh (d) Sharad Pawar (e) APJ Abdul Kalam (Ans : b)

34. Future Group is an Indian private conglomerate, which is known for having a significant prominence in Indian retail and fashion sector, with popular supermarket chain– 
(a) Hyper City (b) Easy Day (c) More (d) D-Mart (e) Big Bazaar (Ans : e)

35. In the recent Finance Bill-2016 place before the parliament Government proposed the merging of commodity futures market regulator, Forward Markets Commission (FMC) with– 
(a) IRDA (b) PFRDA (c) SEBI (d) RBI (e) FLSRC (Ans : c)

36. An insurance purchased by agricultural producers to protect themselves' against either the loss of their crops due to natural disasters or loss of revenue due to declines in the prices of agricultural commodities is known as– 
(a) Crop Insurance (b) Third Party Insurance (c) Gap Insurance (d) Marine Insurance (e) Auto Insurance (Ans : a)

37. 'Discovered in 1866, the 'Mesabi Iron Range' is the chief deposit of iron ore in the– 
(a) South America (b) Russia (c) Australia (d) Europe (e) United States (Ans : e)

38. According to latest Economic Census released by National Statistical Association, which state has emerged top among states having more household enterprises ? 
(a) Haryana (b) Maharashtra (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Karnataka (e) Rajasthan (Ans : c)

39. Tasmania' is an island state and is part of the– 
(a) Commonwealth of Puerto Rico (b) Commonwealth of Marina Islands (c) Commonwealth of Australia 
(d) Commonwealth of Pennsylvania (e) Commonwealth of Massachusetts (Ans : c)

40. United Nations Industrial Development Organization that promotes industrial development is the specialized agency of the United Nations. It is headquartered in– 
(a) Rome, Italy (b) New York, USA (c) Vienna, Austria (d) Paris, France (e) Gland, Switzerland (Ans : c)

Friday, April 15, 2016


1. Alice Vaidyan is the Chairman and Managing Director of which of the following Insurance Companies?
a) New India Assurance
b) Life Insurance Corporation
c) Birla Sun Life Insurance Co. Ltd.
d) National Insurance Company
e) General Insurance Corporation of India

2. Prepayment charges are exempted for:
a) Housing Loans
b) Education Loans
c) Agri. Loans
d) Corporate Loans
e) a, b & c

3. Minimum and Maximum period of Certificate of Deposits:
a) 15 days & 1 year
b) 30 days & 1 year
c) 7 days & 1 year
d) 7 days & no limit
 e) None

4. The Reserve Bank established which board to encourage transparency in lending and fair pricing and customer servicing?
a) Board of Financial Supervision (BFS)
b) Banking Ombudsman
c) Banking Codes and Standards Board of India
d) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
e) All of the Above

5. In strategic alliance, the alliance partners:
a) Merge with each other
b) One partner acquires the other
c) Remain separate entities
d) It is a type of convertion
e) None of the above

6. Maximum SLR to be maintained by banks is:
a) 50% of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL)
b) 40% Net Demand and Time Liabilities
c) 30% Net Demand and Time Liabilities
d) 60% Net Demand and Time Liabilities
e) None of the above

7. With regard to nomination to Illiterate account, which of the following statement is correct?
a) Can extend in favour of literate only
b) Nomination facility is not available
c) Consent from Nominee is required
d) Witness is a must
e) None

8. Acustomer is entitled to get a duplicate DD in place of the lost one, provided:
a) He gives due intimation to the issuing branch
b) Payment of DD not already made by the drawer branch
c) Execution of an indemnity Bond
d) All of the above
e) a and b

9. Bank stakeholders include:
a) Shareholders
b) Customers
c) Employees
d) a & b only
e) a, b, c

10. Agency which purchases NPA from banks is called:
a) Asset Management Company
b) Assets Reconstruction Company
c) Consolidation Company
d) Financial Reconstruction Company
e) None of the above

11. Working capital means:
a) Capital Requirements for the day-to-day transactions
b) Excess of current assets over current liabilities
c) Fixed assets - Current assets
d) None of above
e) b and c

12. E.P.S. in share market stands for:
a) Earnings Per Share
b) Electronic Payment System
c) Employee Pension Scroll
d) Equated Payment System
e) None of these

13. Housing Loans granted to individuals up to Rs.___ for construction of houses (excluding loans
granted by banks to their employees) are treated as priority sector advances:
a) 1 lakh
b) 10 lakhs
c) 25 lakhs
d) 20 lakhs
e) 15 lakhs

14. When the contents of the Negotiable Instrument are modified by the drawer, it is treated as:
a) Forgery
b) Fraud
c) Material alteration
d) Suppression of facts
e) None

15. Operational risk is the risk of loss arising from various types of:
a) Human error
b) Failed systems and procedures in the bank
c) Breakdown in internal controls
d) All of the above
e) a and b

16. Exercise of nomination by the depositor is:
a) Optional to the depositor
b) Mandatory in case of single named accounts
c) Mandatory in case of joint accounts
d) Mandatory for locker accounts
e) None

17. Which of the following statements is not correct with regard to Tax Saver Scheme of Banks?
a) Tax exemption is available for the deposit amount under section 80C of IT Act
b) Period of deposit is allowed up to 5 Years
c) TDS is applicable, if interest payment is above Rs.10,000 in a financial year
d) Maximum amount of deposit allowed is Rs. 5 Lakhs
e) c & d

18. What is the total Priority Sector Lending target for Foreign banks with 20 branches and above to
be increased to ____ by 2018?
a) 32 %
b) 34 %
c) 36 %
d) 40 %
e) None of the above

19. No security is required for obtaining Educational Loan up to an amount of:
a) Rs.4.0 lakhs
 b) Rs.3.5 lakhs
c) Rs.5.5 lakhs
d) Rs.6.5 lakhs
e) Rs.7.5 lakhs

20. EEFC a/c means:
a) Exchange Earnings Foreign Currency a/c
b) Exchange Earnest Foreign Currency a/c
c) Exchange Earners Foreign Currency a/c
d) Exchange Equated Foreign Currency a/c
e) None of these

21. As per SEBI guidelines, in a Book Building process the cap in the price band:
a) Should be at least 10% of the floor price
b) Should not be more than 20% of the floor price
c) No limits
d) a and c
e) None

22. The targets and sub-targets set under priority sector lending (PSL) for all scheduled commercial banks are calculated on ___
a) Adjusted Net Bank Credit [ANBC]
b) Credit Equivalent Amount of Off - Balance Sheet Exposure
c) Either Adjusted Net Bank Credit [ANBC] or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off - Balance Sheet Exposure
d) Adjusted Net Bank Credit [ANBC] or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off - Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher
e) All of the Above

23. When banks give home loans, the nature of charge created is:
a) Hypothecation
b) Mortgage
c) Assignment
d) Pledge
e) None

24. Depositories hold securities in which of the following forms?
i. Demat, ii. Physical
a) Only (i)
b) Only (ii)
c) Either (i) or (ii)
d) Both (i) and (ii)
e) None

25. The nature of charge created while advancing against LIC policies is:
a) Assignment
b) Lien
c) Pledge
d) Set-off

e) a and b
26. Universal Banking means____
a) International Banking
b) Wholesale Banking
c) Offering multiple Financial Products
d) All of the above
e) a and b

27. In Core banking system:
a) Branches are connected to a central host
b) Branch automation modules and delivery channels are incorporated
c) Transactions are done centrally and online
d) All of the above
e) a and b

28. Cheque truncation can be done by:
a) Using MICR data
b) Using electronic image of the cheque and processing it at CTS centre
c) Using data processing
d) a & b
e) None

29. RBI acts as the Banker to the___ Governments:
i. Central ii. State
a) Only (i)
b) Only (ii)
c) Either (i) or (ii)
d) Both (i) and (ii)
e) None of the above

30. The committee which has recommended for establishment of data warehouse is:
a) Vasudevan Committee
b) Rangarajan Committee
c) Saraf Committee
d) Shere Committee
e) b and c

31. Which of the following does not match?
a) Regulator of insurance market –IRDA
b) Regulator of capital market– SEBI
c) Regulator of money market– RBI
d) Regulator of forex market– SEBI
e) All of the Above

32. This gives added value to products(is part of the product) in an attempt to augment their products
with values and associations that are recognised by and are meaningful to their customers:
a) Promotion
b) Brand
c) Product
d) Price
e) c and d

33. Who among the following was selected to succeed Arun Kumar Jain as the new Chairperson of the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)?
a) Sushil Chandra
b) Atulesh Jindal
c) Laxman Das
d) Subrat Kumar Ray
e) Sudha Sharma

34. The Central Board of RBI comprises, a Governor, 4 deputy governors and ____ directors.
a) 5
b) 7
c) 10
d) 15
e) 9

35. S.S. Tarapore passed away in Mumbai on February 2, 2016. He was well-known for his work in the field of:
a) Diplomacy
b) Banking
c) Civil Service
d) Law
e) Agriculture

36. Prime Minister Narendra Modi unveiled the Start-up India action plan to encourage new ventures on January 16, 2016. Income of start-ups will be exempted from tax for how many years?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 6

1) e 2) e 3) c 4) c 5) c 6) b 7) d 8) c 9) e 10) b
11) a 12) a 13) c 14) c 15) d 16) a 17) d 18) d 19) a 20) c
21) b 22) d 23) b 24) a 25) a 26) c 27) d 28) b 29) d 30) a
31) d 32) b 33) b 34) d 35) b 36) c

Tuesday, April 5, 2016


1. Who was appointed as the CEO of Wipro?
1) Abid Ali Z. Neemuchwala
2) T. Kurien
3) Lalitha Kumaramangalam
4) Ramesh Sippy

2. Who of the following has won the 2015 Costa Novel Prize?
1) Frances Hardinge
2) Kate Atkinson
3) Andrea Wulf
4) Helen Macdonald

3. Vilmos Zsigmond, who passed away recently, belong to which of the following fields?
1) Politician
2) Scholar
3) Sportsperson
4) Cinematographer

4. Which of the following organisations has launched Jeevan Labh Scheme?
1) New India Insurance Ltd
2) National Insurance Company Ltd
3) State Bank of India
4) Life Insurance Corporation of India

5. Who of the following is the author of the book titled 'Jinnah Often Came to Our House'?
1) Jaswant Singh
 2) Kiran Doshi
3) Nisid Hajari
4) Jairam Ramesh

6. On what date, the World Braille Day is observed?
1) January 4
2) December 30
3) November 9
4) April 11

7. Which of the following states became the first state in the country to sign MoU for UDAY scheme?
1) Rajasthan
2) Gujarat
3) Uttar Pradesh
4) Jharkhand

8. The 14 km long Zojila tunnel will be constructed in which of the following states?
1) Sikkim
2) Jammu & Kashmir
3) Uttarakhand
4) Himachal Pradesh

9. In the context of India's defence system, "Pinaka II" refers which one of the following?
1) Anti-Radiation Missile (ARM)
2) Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM)
3) Multi - Barrel Rocket Launcher (MBRL) system
4) Nuclear - Capable Ballistic Missile

10. Which of the following committees has submitted report to Supreme Court for reforms in BCCI?
1) H L Dattu committee
2) R M Lodha committee
3) P Sathasivam committee
4) Chandra committee

11. Which of the following bank acquires 10% stake in Institutional Investor Advisory Services (IIAS) for Rs.1 crore?
1) Kotak Mahindra Bank
2) ICICI Bank
3) Axis Bank
4) HDFC Bank

12. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) signed an Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with which of the following for monitoring Watershed Projects?
1) Central Glass and Ceramic Research Institute (CGCRI)
2) National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC)
3) Central Institute of Technology (CIT)
4) Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS)

13. Raghunandan Mandal has passed away recently, he related to?
1) Politics
2) Scholar
3) Sportsperson
4) Cinematographer

14. Which of the following companies has acquired Shifu for $8 million to enrich customer experience?
1) Paytm
2) Flipkart
3) Amazon
4) Myntra

15. Which of the following financial entity has been penalised by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) for breaching the stock broker regulations?
1) R. V. Verma
2) Ashwini Kumar
3) Ravindra Kumar
4) Anand Rathi

16. A friendship bus service between India and ........ was flagged off via Champawat district in Uttarakhand.
1) Nepal
2) Japan
3) Australia
4) Canada

17. Who among the following is the brand ambassador for 'Changing Diabetes' for Novo Nordisk?
1) Rahul Dravid
2) V.V.S Laxman
3) Virender Sehwag
4) Sachin Tendulkar

18. Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurates the five-day 103rd Indian Science Congress (ISC) in which of the following city?
1) Mysore
2) Bengaluru
3) Chennai
4) Pune

19. Where is the headquarter of United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF) located?
1) New York
2) Berlin
3) Italy
4) Washington D.C

20. Who of the following has been appointed as new chief of UN High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR)
1) Helle Thorning
2) Jeffry Sachs
3) Filippo Grandi
4) Achim Steiner

21. Who of the following has become the first batsman to score more than a 1,000 runs in an innings in any form of cricket?
1) Ravindra Wade
2) Pranav Dhanawade
3) Prithvi Shaw
4) Mobin Sheikh

22. Who of the following has won the gold in the women's 10 metre air rifle event at the Swedish Cup Grand Prix?
1) Rahi Sarnobot
2) Apurvi Chandela
3) Rajyashree Kumari
4) Chandro Tomar

23. In which of the following states the Ganga Gram Yojana has been launched?
1) Uttarakhand
2) Bihar
3) West Bengal
4) Uttar Pradesh

24. For what purpose, the Stand Up India Scheme has been launched?
1) To promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST
2) To promote entrepreneurship among Rural Youth
3) To promote entrepreneurship among Woman
4) To promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and Women

25. Who of the following is the author of the novel titled - Go Set a Watchman?
1) Cynthia Lord
2) Bill Clegg
3) Marlon James
4) Harper Lee

26. Which of the following companies publishes Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI)?
1) National Stock Exchange of India Limited
2) BSE Institute Limited
3) Markit
4) HSBC Analytics

27. The 'Fountain of Oneness' is located in which of the following cities?
1) Ajmer
2) Delhi
3) Agra
4) Khajuraho

28. Who of the following is the creator of Star Wars?
1) Catherine Winder
2) Scott Murphy
3) George Lucas
4) Lawrence Kasdan

29. Which of the following persons appointed as Technical Advisor of Odisha Government?
1) Sam Pitroda
2) Amjad Ali Khan
3) Jasraj
4) Shivkumar Sharma

30. Which of the following person appointed as Chairman of Film and Television Institute of India (FTII)?
1) Neha Gupta
2) Hrishikesh Kanitkar
3) Gajendra Chauhan
4) Arvind Uppal

31. Which of the following persons conferred with 2015 Col CK Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award?
1) Syed Kirmani
2) Om Prakash Gurjar
3) Anand Sinha
4) Subir Gokarn

32. RBI imposed 1 crore rupees penalty on which of the following banks?
1) Andhra Bank
2) Canara Bank
3) State Bank of Mysore
4) State Bank of Travancore

33. Which of the following raises Rs.1,900 crore via Basel-III compliant bonds?
2) Punjab National Bank
3) Bank Of Baroda
4) Bank Of India

34. Labhshankar Thakar passed away recently. He related to?
1) Politician
2) Singer
3) Dancer
4) Writer

35. Which of the following company has bagged the Rs.10050 crore Zojila Pass tunnel road project in Jammu and Kashmir?
1) Container Corporation of India
2) Asia Motor Works
3) Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Ltd
4) IRB Infrastructure Developers Ltd

36. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has imposed a fine of Rs.10 lakh on which of the following bank?
1) Vijaya Bank
2) Punjab National Bank
3) Bank of Baroda
4) Bank of India

37. India signed Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with which of the following countries in the field of Civil Aviation?
1) Egypt
2) Greece
3) Malta
4) Singapore

38. Which of the following countries has announced that it had successfully carried out its first hydrogen bomb test?
1) North Korea
2) France
3) Australia
4) Sri Lanka

39. The Union Government has abolished export duty on which of the following?
1) Mineral Waxes
2) Organic Chemicals
3) Iron ore pellets
4) Iron and Steel

40. India signed Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with which of the following countries for operation of traditional haats?
1) Mynmar
2) Afganistan
3) Pakistan
4) Bangladesh

41. Which of the following cities to get India's first river gallery?
1) Bengaluru
2) Mysore
3) Chennai
4) Hyderabad

42. The Indian space agency is soon opening a 100-acre Space Park in which of the following cities?
1) Bengaluru
2) Nagpur
3) Mumbai
4) New Delhi

43. The World Day of War Orphans is observed on which of the following day?
1) 7th January
2) 6th January
3) 8th January
4) 9th January

44. Which of the following companies has won 26th Lal Bahadur Shastri Hockey tournament?
1) Coal India Limited
2) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
3) Indian Oil Corporation Limited
4) Steel Authority of India Limited

45. Which of the following cities have made it to a top 30 list of the world's most powerful, productive and connected cities, as per the study conducted by international real estate consultancy JLL?
1) Chennai and Bangalore
2) Kolkata and pune
3) Delhi and Mumbai
4) Delhi and Bangalore

46. Who has been appointed as the new chairman of Competition Commission of India (CCI)?
1) DK Sikri
2) Amitabh Kant
3) Ashok Chawla
4) Dhanendra Kumar

47. In which of the following cities the world's first slum museum will be set up?
1) Indore
2) Mumbai
3) Lucknow
4) Ahmedabad

48. Who has been conferred with the 2016 Global and Asia - Pacific Central Bank Governor of the Year?
1) Janet Yellen
2) Mark Carney
3) Raghuram Rajan
4) Haruhiko Kuroda

49. Who has been honoured with the second Harikrishna Devsare Baalsahitya Award 2015?
1) Gangesh Gunjan
2) Sheela Jhunjhunwala
3) Balkrishna Garg
4) Sherjung Garg

50. In which state, the Union govt has decided to set up National Organic Farming Research Institute (NOFRI) in 2016?
1) Mizoram
2) Meghalaya
3) Assam
4) Sikkim

1-1, 2-2, 3-4, 4-4, 5-2, 6-1, 7-4, 8-2, 9-3, 10-2
11-1, 12-2, 13-1, 14-1, 15-4, 16-1, 17-4, 18-1, 19-1, 20-3
21-2, 22-2, 23-4, 24-4, 25-4, 26-3, 27-2, 28-3, 29-1, 30-3
31-1, 32-4, 33-1, 34-4, 35-4, 36-1, 37-4, 38-1, 39-3, 40-4
41-2, 42-1, 43-2, 44-2, 45-3, 46-1, 47-2, 48-3, 49-3, 50-4

State Bank of India 15431 Clerk Posts Recruitment

Applications are invited for appointment as Junior Associate (Customer Support & Sales), Junior Agricultural Associates in Clerical cadre in State Bank of India.

Total No. of Posts: 15431

1. Junior Associate (Customer Support & Sales): 10726 Posts
Qualification: Graduation in any discipline.

2. Junior Agricultural Associate: 3008 Posts
Qualification: Graduation in Agriculture or Agriculture allied activities.

3. Junior Associate (JA) SRD for Backlog Vacancies: 1697 Posts

Age Limit (As on 01.04.2016): Not below 20 years and not above 28 years as on 01.04.2016 i.e candidates must have been born not earlier than 02.04.1988 and not later than 01.04.1996 (both days inclusive).

Selection Procedure: The selection process will consist of on-line test (preliminary & main examinations), test of official and/ or local language and subject to Government of India approval, interview.

Application fee & Intimation Charge: SC/ ST/ PWD/ XS- Rs. 100 ; General and OBC- Rs. 600.

How to Apply: Candidates will be required to register themselves online through Bank's website.

Online registration of application and payment of fees: 05.04.2016 to 25.04.2016.

Last date for online application: 25.04.2016.

Preliminary Examination will be conducted tentatively in the month of May/ June 2016.

For Notification Click Here

Bank of Baroda Recruitment of Specialist Officers Posts

Bank of Baroda, Mumbai invites application for the recruitment of Specialist Officer Posts.

Post Details:
1. Finance/ Credit : 95 Posts
2. IT Specialist : 25 Posts
3. Software Development : 10 Posts
4. Planning : 06 Posts
5. Risk Management : 10 Posts
6. HRM Specialist : 07 Posts
7. Recruitment Specialist : 02 Posts
8. HR IT : 06 Posts
9. Economist : 04 Posts
10. Law : 20 Posts
11. Finance/ Credit : 50 Posts
12. Data Scientist : 02 Posts
13. Software Testing : 02 Posts
14. Database Management : 02 Posts
15. Data Analyst : 09 Posts

Qualification: CA/ ICWA/ MBA (Finance)/ PGDBM (Finance) Engineering/ Technology Degree (Computer Science)/ M.A Economics/ M.Sc Statistics/ Bachelor Degree in Law with relevant experience.

How to Apply: Candidates may apply online through website.

Last date for application: 13.04.2016.

For Notification Click Here

For Online Application Click Here 

Saturday, March 12, 2016


1. Who was the Chairman of 14th Finance Commission? – Dr. Y.V.Reddy
2. The India Institute of Advanced Studies is located in– Shimla 
3. Virtual water implies– Volume of water required to produce a commodity or service 
4. The main security guard of International Trade is– WTO 
5. The Government Securities on which no interest is paid and the Government only pays the Face Value of the bond on its maturity are called– Zero Coupon Bonds 
6. Meera Seth Committee was associated with– the development of handloom industry 
7. Which company has started a rural marketing network called e-chaupals ? – ITC 
8. Non-Resident Inday Day is observed on– January 9 
9. 'Closed Economy' is that economy in which– Neither export nor import takes place 
10. The document 'Planning Commission's India Vision 2020' has been proposed by– A Committee headed by Shyam Prasad Gupta 
11. Where was First Trade Point in India established? – New Delhi (August 16, 1994) 
12. Nabinagar Power Plant situated in Bihar belongs to– Indian Railways 
13. IIP stands for– Index of Industrial Production 
14. Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana was launched on– August 31, 2007 
15. For which item is Tirpur well known as a huge exporter to many parts of the world– Knitted garments 
16. National Rural Development Institute is situated at– Hyderabad 
17. The World's seventh largest city in terms of billionaire population is– Mumbai 
18. Where is the Bank Press Note located? – Dewas (M.P.) 
19. 'Axis Bank' is the new proposed name for– UTI Bank 
20. Swam Jayanti Shahri Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY) was introduced on– December 1, 1997 
22. Whose name is associated with formulation of Planning Strategy in Second Five Year Plan ? – Prasant Chandra Mahalanobis 
23. Indian Planning Commission was constituted in– 1950 
24. Swamajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) aims at– Establishing a large number of micro-enterprises in rural areas of the country 
25 The outline of second five year plan was made by – P. C. Mahalanobis 
26. Employment Assurance Scheme (EAS) was launched on– October 2, 1993
 27. Bank Rate is the rate at which– Reserve Bank of India lends money to Commercial Banks 
28. The first multipurpose river valley project of independent India is– Damodar Valley Corporation 
29. Devaluation means– To reduce the value of home currency in terms of other currency 
30. The Government proposals for the levy of new taxes, alterations in the present tax structure are in the form of– Finance Bill 
31. When personal direct taxes are subtracted from personal income the obtained value is called– Disposable Personal Income 
32. Who maintains foreign exchange reserve in our country ? – Reserve Bank of India (RBI) 
33. India is the second largest producer of– Nitrogenous fertilizer in the world 
34. RBI was nationalised in– 1949 
35. J. J. Irani Committee was associated with– Company Law Reforms
36. Which constitutional body is appointed by the President under Article 280 every five years to review Centre State financial relations ? – Finance Commission
37. The Ministry which gives financial support to Mid-day meal scheme for the benefit of Class I to V students in Government or Government aided schools is– Ministry of Human Resource Development 
38. National Safety Council to check casualties in industrial units to reduce the incidence of dangers and to promote the awareness for safety among the labourers was constituted in– 1966 
39. In India, the first bank of limited liability managed by Indians and founded in 1881 was– Oudh Commercial Bank
40. Who is called the father of Operation Flood in India? – Verghese Kurien