Wednesday, August 16, 2017

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR ALL BANK EXAMS

1. Recently State-owned oil firms IOC, BPCL and HPCL signed an agreement to jointly set up the world's largest refinery and petrochemical complex in:
a) Maharashtra
b) Gujarat
c) Rajasthan
d) Karnataka

2. Recently in an attempt to reduce the number of deaths of endangered wildlife in Thar Desert, new "rescue wards" have come up in the far-flung rural areas of Jodhpur. Thar Desert does not lie in:
a) Gujarat
b) Haryana
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Punjab

3. Recently Reserve Bank of India has put which bank under prompt corrective action (PCA) due to a sharp increase in bad loans?
a) Union Bank of India
b) Central Bank of India
c) United Bank of India
d) IDBI Bank


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4. Recently India has decided for the first time to place a dedicated cell to promote investments of which country in India?
a) Canada
b) USA
c) Australia
d) Russia

5. The National Physical Laboratory (NPL), part of the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research and the only agency in India that is authorised to maintain Indian Standard Time (IST). It is located in:
a) Mumbai
b) Allahabad
c) New Delhi
d) Kolkata

6. Recently a team of experts at the Indian Institute of Technology - Kharagpur has fashioned a hybrid material based on silk protein called:
a) Silk Lyptonn
b) Silk Fibroin
c) Silk Ranyon
d) Silk Tinyton

7. Recently the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched 'IDCF' in order to intensify efforts to reduce child deaths due to:
a) Diphtheria
b) Tuberculosis
c) Diarrhoea
d) Tetanus

8. Who has been appointed as India's ambassador to the European Union (EU) in June 2017?
a) Gaitri Issar Kumar
b) Ajit Vinayak Gupte
c) Reenat Sandhu
d) Ranjan Deepak

9. The government is set to roll out the 'Mission Parivar Vikas' programme to improve family planning services in how many districts of India?
a) 56
b) 78
c) 104
d) 146

10. Name the 1st Indian woman who has been elected as member of International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS)?
a) Sumedha Puri
b) Anandita Razdan
c) Koel Agrahari
d) Neeru Chadha

11. Recently Anglo American's diamond unit De Beers launched the world's largest diamond exploration vessel off the coast of:
a) South Africa
b) Chile
c) Namibia
d) Egypt

12. Recently the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) approved it's firstever equity investment, worth .......... to catalyze private capital for infrastructure projects in India.
a) $ 70 million
b) $110 million
c) $150 million
d) $230 million

13. Who was the first Indian woman driver competed in one of the highest classes of Formula racing in the country at the upcoming JK Tyre-FMSCI National racing championship?
a) Radha Menon
b) Aprajita Sehgal
c) Mira Erda
d) Ritu Das

14. According to the study by UK-based Money Super Market what is the present rank of India in survey of nations with the lowest global environmental impact?
a) 34th
b) 46th
c) 57th
d) 75th

15. Who is not among the three countries that will participate in Malabar 2017, a joint midsummer exercise aimed at addressing shared threats to maritime security in the Indo-Asia Pacific region?
a) Japan
b) USA
c) Indonesia
d) India

16. David Grossman has won the Man Booker International Prize for his novel "A Horse walks into a bar". David Grossman belongs to:
a) Uganda
b) Canada
c) Australia
d) Israel

17. Recently the government, through a notification amending a prevention of money laundering law, has made it mandatory to provide Aadhaar to open a bank account and to conduct a transaction of ......... or more.
a) Rs.20,000
b) Rs.50,000
c) Rs.1,00,000
d) Rs.2,50,000

18. According to Environment Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan, India is committed to achieve Land Degradation Neutrality by the year:
a) 2020
b) 2025
c) 2030
d) 2050

19. Recently which of the following country ratified automatic exchange of financial account information with India and 40 other jurisdictions to facilitate immediate sharing of details on suspected black money?
a) Belarus
b) Switzerland
c) Russia
d) USA

20. In order to boost G&J sector in the region Gem & Jewellery Training Institute, a first of its kind in Southern India is to be set up in:
a) Kochi
b) Palakkad
c) Udupi
d) Mangalore

21. In an attempt to keep India's regional navigation satellite system fully operational, ISRO is preparing to launch a back-up for IRNSS-1A, one of the seven satellites in the constellation. What is the name of its regional navigation satellite system?
a) GAGAN
b) NavIC
c) Galileo
d) None of the above

22. Recently which of the following countries's scientists have found that using blue-green algae and light to trigger photosynthesis could help treat cardiac disease, the top cause of death globally?
a) Japan
b) Germany
c) USA
d) China

23. Recently P.N.Bhagwati passed away. He was the:
a) Former Chief Election Commissioner of India
b) Former Chief Justice of India
c) Former Indian cricket test team captain
d) First Chief Information Commissioner of India

24. Gorkha Janmukti Morcha has been in the news, because it has been campaigns for the creation of a separate state Gorkhaland within India, out of districts in the north of which of the following states of India?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) West Bengal
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Madhya Pradesh

25. Dr. Mahesh Sharma, Minister of State (Independent charge) for Culture & Tourism launched the implementation of the ''National Mission on Cultural Mapping of India' at:
a) Mathura, Uttar Pradesh
b) Chitradurga, Karnataka
c) Tiruchirapalli, Tamil Nadu
d) Kurnool, Andhra Pradesh

26. How many new Post Office Passport Seva Kendras (POPSKs) has been launched by Government of India in June 2017?
a) 50
b) 149
c) 100
d) 500

27. Which is the country's first public transport system to reserve jobs for members of the third gender people in June 2017?
a) Kolkata Metro
b) Hyderabad Metro
c) Kochi Metro
d) Delhi Metro

28. Sardar Sarovar Dam is being built on which of the following rivers?
a) Tapi
b) Krishna
c) Narmada
d) Godavari

29. Which of the following states of India is poised to fortify its position as the "Tiger State of India" with major reserves indicating an increase in the tiger population as per the annual census completed recently?
a) Karnataka
b) Assam
c) Gujarat
d) Rajasthan

30. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has progressed to the testing of subsystems in the development of a semi-cryogenic engine for rockets with heavier payload capacity. The semi-cryogenic engine uses a combination of which of the following as propellants?
a) Liquid oxygen (LOX)
b) Refined kerosene (Isrosene)
c) Solid lithium (SLM)
d) Both (a) and (b)

31. Who among the following won the doubles title in the $60,000 ITF women's tennis tournament in June 2017?
a) Prarthana Thombare and Kotomi Takahata
b) Prarthana Thombare and Natcharee Teerachodjiranon
c) Prarthana Thombare and Yu-Yun Li
d) Prarthana Thombare and Natasha Sengphrachanh

32. Right to Information Act reveals that the Election Commission of India had ordered registration of FIR against the Chief Minister and others for alleged electoral malpractices during the Dr. Radhakrishnan Nagar by-election of which of the following states?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) West Bengal
c) Goa
d) Karnataka

33. A Street in Thuruthi ward of Kasaragod municipality that was recently named 'Gaza', a reference to the disputed strip of land between which of the following countries?
a) Israel and Egypt
b) Israel and Syria
c) Israel and Libya
d) Israel and Jordon

34. Which among the following Palaces has becomes first Indian building to get trademark in June 2017?
a) Mysore Palace
b) Taj Mahal Palace
c) Nizam Palace
d) Raja Maharanjith Singh Palace

35. The 106th Session of International Labour Conference (ILC) was held from 5-16th June 2017 in:
a) USA
b) South Africa
c) Switzerland
d) Norway

36. How many member countries are there in the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank?
a) 80
b) 10
c) 50
d) 40

37. Reserve Bank of India said its internal advisory committee (IAC) had identified 12 accounts, which account for ........... % of non-performing assets of the Indian banking system for immediate resolution under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC).
a) 30
b) 25
c) 20
d) 15

38. The 'Make in India' initiative unveiled by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2014, provided the supply side intervention(s) of which of the following?
a) FDI reforms
b) Ease of doing business
c) Scaling up physical infrastructure and competitive federalism
d) All of the above

39. Which among the following country's cricket team has won its maiden ICC Champion Trophy in June 2017?
a) India
b) England
c) Pakistan
d) South Africa

40. Who among the following won the Indonesia Open men's singles trophy in June 2017?
a) Sai Praneeth
b) Son Wan Ho
c) Kidambi Srikanth
d) Kazumasa Sakai


ANSWERS:
1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d, 5-c, 6-b, 7-c, 8-a, 9-d, 10-d
11-c, 12-c, 13-c, 14-d, 15-c, 16-d, 17-b, 18-c, 19-b, 20-c
21-b, 22-c, 23-b, 24-b, 25-a, 26-b, 27-c, 28-c, 29-a, 30-d
31-a, 32-a, 33-a, 34-b, 35-c, 36-a, 37-b, 38-d, 39-c, 40-c

IBPS Recruitment of 3562 Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee Posts

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) invites applications for the Recruitment of Probationary Officer/Management Trainee posts through Common Recruitment Process (CWE PO/MT-VII).

* Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee (CWE PO/MT-VII): 3,562 Posts


Qualification: A Degree (Graduation) in any discipline.


Age (As on 01.08.2017): Between 20 - 30 years. A candidate must have been born not earlier than 02.08.1987 and not later than 01.08.1997 (both dates inclusive).


How to Apply: Through Online.


Selection Process: Through Preliminary, Main Examination and Interview.


Imp. Dates:
* On-line registration including Edit/Modification of Application by candidates: 16.08.2017 to 05.09.2017.


* Payment of Application Fees/Intimation Charges (Online): 16.08.2017 to 05.09.2017.


* Download of call letters for Pre- Exam Training: September 2017.


* Conduct of Pre-Exam Training: 23.09.2017 to 29.09.2017.


* Download of call letters for Online examination – Preliminary: September 2017.


* Online Examination – Preliminary: 07.10.2017, 08.10.2017, 14.10.2017 and 15.10.2017.


* Result of Online exam – Preliminary: October 2017.


* Download of Call letter for Online exam – Main: November 2017.


* Online Examination – Main: 26.11.2017.


* Declaration of Result – Main: December 2017.


* Download of call letters for interview: January 2018.


* Conduct of interview: January / February 2018.


* Provisional Allotment: April 2018.



For Detailed Notification Click Here

For Online Application Click Here

Oriental Insurance Company Limited Recruitment of 300 Administrative Officer Posts

The Oriental Insurance Company Limited invites applications to recruit the post of Administrative Officer in various disciplines. 

Post: Administrative Officer 


Total number of Posts: 300


Stream wise Vacancies
Accounts: 20
Legal: 30
Actuaries: 02
Automobile Engineers: 15
Generalists: 223 
Medical Officers: 10


Online Application Process: 18.08.2017 to 15.09.2017 


Date of Written Test: 22.10.2017.


For Advertisement Notice Click Here

United India Insurance Company Limited Assistants Recruitment

United India Insurance Company Limited invites applications for the posts of Assistant Posts.

* Assistants: 696 Posts


Qualification: Graduate from a recognized University and Knowledge of Reading, Writing and Speaking of Regional language of the State of Recruitment is essential. 


Age: Between 18 - 28 years for GENERAL candidates. Candidates born not earlier than 01.07.1989 and not later than 30.06.1999 (both days inclusive) are only eligible to apply.


How to Apply: through Online


Starting Date for Online Application: 14.08.2017.


Last Date: 28.08.2017.


Preliminary Examination: 22.09.2017.


Main Examination: 23.10.2017.


For Advertisement Notice Click Here

Wednesday, August 9, 2017

RECRUITMENT OF PROBATIONARY ASSISTANTS IN CLERICAL GRADE AT CAN FIN HOMES LTD.

Can Fin Homes Ltd. invites applications for the post of Probationarty Assistant.

Post details:
1. Bangalore: 08 Posts
2. Chennai: 04 Posts
3. Hyderabad: 05 Posts
4. Mumbai: 04 Posts
5. Jaipur: 02 Posts
6. Bhopal: 1 Post
7. Indore: 01 Post
8. Delhi/ Noida/ Greater Noida (NCR): 05 Posts


Qualification: Any Degree. Proficiency in data entry/ computer application.


Age as on 01.05.2017: 21 to 28 years.


Selection process: Based on the total marks secured in the interview.


How to apply: Apply online only.


Last date for online application: 14.08.2017.


For Notification Click Here

Tuesday, August 8, 2017

BANKING AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR ALL BANK EXAMS

1. Which of the following institutions provides secured depository services?
a) NSE
b) NSDL
c) RBI
d) BSE
e) NPCI

2. While dealing with Foreign Exchange transactions "Multicurrency basket" means:
a) A number of international currencies to which the value of SDRs is linked
b) Selected international currencies to which the value of Asian Monetary Unit is linked
c) Number of major international currencies to which the external value of the Indian rupee is linked
d) The name given to a group of West European currencies
e) None of the above

3. Name of the Bank and CMD is given below. Which pair is not a correct one?
a) Allahabad Bank - Usha Anantha Subramanian
b) Andhra Bank - Suresh N Patel
c) Bank of India - Rajeev Rishi
d) Bank of Baroda - PS Jayakumar
e) Bank of Maharashtra - Ravindra Prabhakar Marathe

4. In banking parlance when a negotiable instrument is endorsed with notation "Sans recourse", it means:
a) Without liability to payment bank
b) Without physical touch
c) Without liability to me
d) Without liability to payee
e) None of the above

5. When the holder of an order cheque signs on the back of it , without specifying the person to
whom the amount is to be paid, it is called:
a) Full endorsement
b) Partial endorsement
c) Conditional endorsement
d) Restrictive endorsement
e) Bank endorsement

6. Mandate is an/a:
a) Stamped agreement
b) Unstamped agreement
c) Memorandum of agreement
d) Letter of consent for agreement
e) None of the above

7. Earlier Form 15G/15H submitted by the depositors to their bankers for not deducting TDS. These
forms so collected had to be sent to Income Tax Department. However as per revised procedure, banks will not send copy of form 15G/15 H to Income Tax Department but will retain the same with them for:
a) 2 years
b) 3 Years
c) 6 years
d) 7 years
e) 8 Years

8. Merchant bankers are:
a) Financial Brokers
b) Financial Intermediaries
c) Credit Appraisers
d) Underwriters
e) All of the above

9. Name the Chairman of Insolvency Bankruptcy Board of India?
a) Romesh Sobti
b) Madhusudan Sahoo
c) P. JayaRama Bhat
d) P. Mukherjee
e) V.G. Mathew

10. In which years RBI and SBI are nationalized respectively?
a) 1955, 1949
b) 1969, 1955
c) 1949, 1955
d) 1955, 1969
e) 1949, 1969

11. Non-profit organizations are categorized in which risk category as per new KYC(Know Your
Customer) and AML (Anti-Money Laundering) guidelines:
a) Low Risk
b) Medium Risk
c) Little Risk
d) High Risk
e) Very High Risk

12. As per Section 138 of N.I. Act, there is a provision of penalty:
a) If cheque given as gift is dishonoured
b) If signature of drawer do not tally with that is one on record
c) If cheque issued in discharge of a liability is dishonoured due to insufficient funds in the account
d) If the cheque has been presented to the paying banker within a period of 3 months from date written on it & is not honoured due to insufficient funds
e) c & d both

13. The reserve which is created out of the capital profit is known as capital reserve. Which of the
following items for part of Capital reserve?
a) Profit on revaluation of assets and liabilities
b) Profit on sale of assets & sale of shares and debentures
c) Profit on forfeiture of shares & redemption of debentures
d) Profit on purchasing running business
e) All the above

14. Kisan credit Cards are issued to farmer____:
a) To withdraw money from ATM
b) To purchase farm equipments
c) To purchase agricultural implements on credit from dealers
d) To meet their cultivation needs and non-farm requirements, including purchase of inputs and other short-term requirements and working capital requirements for allied activities
e) None of the above

15. At present lending rate is calculated on the basis of MCLR. In MCLR 'M' Stands for:
a) Marginal
b) Macro
c) Micro
d) Market
e) Margin

16. Holders of 'Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account' will not be eligible for opening any other
savings account in that bank. If a customer has any other existing savings account in that bank, he will be required to close it within:
a) 30 days from the date of opening a 'Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account'
b) 45 days from the date of opening a 'Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account'
c) 60 days from the date of opening a 'Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account
d) 90 days from the date of opening a 'Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account'
e) 120 days from the date of opening a 'Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account'

17. Credit Rating Agencies in India are regulated by:
a) RBI
b) CRISIL
c) Central Government
d) IDRBT
e) SEBI

18. What is the main objective of setting up of CERSAI?
a) Increasing revenue of Central Govt.
b) Preventing frauds
c) To compile statistics relating to total immovable properties in the country
d) To ensure whether a Company has registered with ROC properly or not
e) None of the above

19. Consequent upon merger of 5 subsidiaries and Bharatiya Mahila Bank into State Bank of India.
which of the following statement is correct?
a) This merger has catapulted SBI into one of the top 50 global banks (up from 55th position in 2016)
b) SBI's balance sheet size is Rs.33 lakh crore
c) The total number of branches and ATMs of SBI has become 24,017 and 59,263 respectively
d) The customer base of SBI is now over 42 crore
e) All the above

20. Google global CEO Sundar Pichai has launched training programme called ________ for
Small and Medium Businesses (SMBs) and startups to go digital in India in partnership with Ministry of Information and Technology and the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry.
a) "Digital Unlocked"
b) "Wallet Unlocked"
c) "SME unlocked"
d) " Unlocking SME Potential"
e) None of the above

21. Which Bank's MD and CEO has been awarded the 'Woodrow Wilson Award' by the Woodrow Wilson Centre in Washington DC:
a) HDFC
b) YES bank
C) ICICI
d) SBI
e) Punjab National Bank

22. Match the following mergers of banks.
List I
A. Centurion Bank of Punjab
B. Bank of Rajasthan
C. Global Trust Bank
D. Nedungadi Bank
List II
1. ICICI Bank
2. Punjab National Bank
3. HDFC Bank
4. Oriental Bank of Commerce
a) A - 4; B - 1; C - 2; D - 3
b) A - 3; B - 4; C - 1; D - 2
c) A - 2; B - 1; C - 4; D - 3
d) A - 3; B - 1; C - 4; D - 2
e) None of the above

23. Which document stipulates internal rules of a company?
a) Memorandum of Association
b) Prospectus
c) Articles of Association
d) Declaration
e) Special Resolution

24. Banks Board Bureau (BBB) has recommended to the government names of 15 general managers of various public sector banks for appointment as executive directors. Who is the chairman of Banks Board Bureau?
a) Vinod Rai
b) Chandrashekhar Ghosh
c) Mukesh Sharma
d) K.B. Nagendra Murthy
e) Arvind Panagariya

25. "Aapka Bhala, Sabki Bhalai"is the slogan of:
a) Allahabad Bank
b) Federal Bank
c) ICIC
d) HDFC
e ) Bandhan Bank

26. Which of the following statements are correct regarding NRO Non Resident Ordinary Rupee Account?
a) Mainly used for local transactions in India
b) If a citizen becomes an NRI, the existing account will be converted into NRO
c) Can be opened in the form of Savings, Current, Recurring or Fixed Deposit account
d) Can be opened jointly with Resident Indian
e) All the above

27) A scheme named ___ offers a long term subscription to Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana with attached Fixed Deposit.
a) Suraksha Deposit Scheme
b) Suraksha Insurance Cover
c) Jeevan Suraksha Yojana
d) Suraksha Cover
e) Suraksha Plus Scheme

28. The Maximum number of members in a Private limited company is:
a) 50
b) 20
c) 10
d) 200
e) No limit

29. With which of the following is SARFAESI Act 2002 related?
a) Recovery of bad loans
b) Regulation of Foreign Exchange
c) Fixation of interest rates
d) Acquisition of small banks
e) None of the above

30. ________ is money whose face value exceeds its cost of production.
a) Production Money
b) Token Money
c) Paper Money
d) Black Money
e) Call Money


ANSWERS:
1) b 2) c 3) c 4) c 5) e 6) b 7) d 8) b 9) b 10) c
11) d 12) e 13) e 14) d 15) a 16) a 17) e 18) b 19) e 20) a
21) c 22) d 23) c 24) a 25) e 26) e 27) a 28) d 29) a 30) b

Sunday, July 23, 2017

IBPS Recruitment of Officers & Office Assistant Posts

The online examination for the next Common Recruitment Process for RRBs for recruitment of Group 'A'- Officers (Scale-I, II & III) and Group 'B'-Office Assistant (Multipurpose) will be conducted by the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) tentatively between September and November 2017.

Post details:
1. Office Assistant (Multipurpose)
Qualification: Bachelor’s degree in any discipline. Proficiency in local language.

2. Officers Scale I
Qualification: Bachelor’s degree in any discipline. Preference will be given to the candidates having degree in Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Animal Husbandry, Veterinary Science, Agricultural Engineering, Pisciculture, Agricultural Marketing and Cooperation, Information Technology, Management, Law, Economics or Accountancy. Proficiency in local language.


3. Officers Scale II (General Banking Officer)

Qualification: Bachelor’s degree in any discipline. Preference will be given to the candidates having degree in Banking, Finance, Marketing, Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Animal Husbandry, Veterinary Science, Agricultural Engineering, Pisciculture, Agricultural Marketing and Cooperation, Information Technology, Management, Law, Economics and Accountancy.
Experience: Two years as an officer in a Bank or Financial Institution.

4. Officer Scale-II Specialist Officers (Manager)
A. Information Technology Officer
Qualification: Bachelor’s degree in Electronics/ Communication/ Computer Science/ Information Technology with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate. One year (in the relevant field) experience.
B. Chartered Accountant
Qualification: Certified Associate (CA) from Institute of Chartered Accountants of India. One year as a Chartered Accountant experience.
C. Law Officer
Qualification: Degree in Law with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate. 
Experience: Two years as an advocate or should have worked as Law Officer in Banks or Financial Institutions for a period of not less than two years.
D. Treasury Manager
Qualification: Charted Accountant or MBA in Finance. One year (in the relevant field) experience.
E. Marketing Officer
Qualification: MBA in Marketing. One year (in the relevant field) experience.
F. Agriculture Officer
Qualification: Bachelor’s degree in Agriculture/ Horticulture/ Dairy/ Animal Husbandry/ Forestry/ Veterinary Science/ Agricultural Engineering/ Pisciculture with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate. Two years (in the relevant field) experience.


5. Officers Scale III-(Sr. Manager)
Qualification: Bachelor’s degree in any discipline with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate. Preference will be given to the candidates having Degree/ Diploma in Banking, Finance, Marketing, Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Animal Husbandry, Veterinary Science, Agricultural Engineering, Pisciculture, Agricultural Marketing and Cooperation, Information Technology, Management, Law, Economics and Accountancy.
Experience: Minimum 5 years experience as an Officer in a Bank or Financial Institutions.


Age (As on 01.07.2017):
For Officer Scale- III (Senior Manager): Between 21 to 40 years.
For Officer Scale- II (Manager): Between 21 to 32 years.
For Officer Scale- I (Assistant Manager): Between 18 to 30 years.
For Office Assistant (Multipurpose): Between 18 to 28 years.


Selection: Based on Preliminary Examination, Main Examination and Interview.


How to Apply: Candidates can apply online only from 24.07.2017 to 14.08.2017.
Online Examination – Preliminary: 
Officer Scale-I: 09.09.2017, 10.09.2017 and 16.09.2017.
Office Assistant: 17, 23 & 24.09.2017.


Online Examination – Main/ Single: 
Officers (I, II & III): 05.11.2017.
Office Assistant: 12.11.2017.
Conduct of interview (For Officers Scale I, II and III): December 2017.


For Detailed Notification Click Here

Monday, July 17, 2017

BANKING AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Who is the present Managing Director & CEO of Bank of India?
a) Dinabandhu Mohapatra
b) R Subramania Kumar
c) Sunil Mehta
d) N.Kamakodi
e) Neelam Damodharam

2. RBI has increased the capital requirement for Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARC) From the existing Rs. 2 crore to______ by March 2019.
a) Rs. 5 crore
b) Rs. 25 crore
c) Rs. 100 crore
d) Rs. 150 crore
e) Rs. 200 crore

3. Time limit for settlement of claims in Deceased cases:
a) 30 days from the date of death
b) 15 days from the date of death
c) 15 days from the date of submission of all the documents
d) 30 days from the date of submission of all the documents
e) 7 days from the date of death

4. Under Atal Pension Yojana (APY), the Central Govt will contribute 50% of total contribution or Rs. 1000 whichever is lower, to eligible subscriber's A/c, for a period of ___ years.
a) 2 years
b) 3 years
c) 4 years
d) 5 years
e) 6 years

5. ACH is a system that monitors and administers the processing of cheques and fund clearance among the banks. What is the full form of ACH.
a) Automatic Clearing House
b) Additional Clearing House
c) Autonomous Clearing House
d) Automated Clearing House
e) Authorised Clearing House

6. Mission Indra Dhanush aims to achieve full immunization of more than 90% children by _____
a) 2018
b) 2019
c) 2020
d) 2021
e) 2022

7. MS Dhoni is having SB account (Balance Rs. 80,000) and Fixed Deposit Account (Balance Rs. 1,20,000) in a Bank which is covered under DICGC. If that bank is to be closed for any reason whatsoever, What is the maximum amount MS Dhoni will be reimbursed by DICGC?
a) Rs.1,80,000
b) Rs. 1,00,000
c) Rs. 2,00,000
d) Rs. 1,20,000
e) None of the above

8. Main parties in case of Agency Agreement is:
a) Debtor - Creditor
b) Bailor - Bailee
c) Lessor - Lessee
d) Principal - Agent
e) Trustee - Beneficiary

9. Which of the following is/are correct regarding investment to reduce the risk of adverse price movements in an asset?
a) Hedge
b) SPV
c) MBS
d) MCLR
e) b & c

10. The term "Allonge" refers to a sheet of paper attached:
a) To a negotiable instrument for the purpose of making endorsement thereon when there is no space on the instrument
b) To a Non-Judicial Stamp paper
c) To a mortgage deed for the purpose of witness
d) To the Sanction Advice of the loan intimating the terms of sanction
e) All the above

11. A mutual fund is set up in the form of:
a) A trust
b) A Company incorporated under the Indian Companies Act
c) An Act of Parliament
d) A Limited liability partnership
e) None of the above

12. What is the full form of ARM in case of Loans against mortgage of properties?
a) Additional Rate Mortgages
b) Advance Rate Mortgages
c) Adjustable Rate Mortgages
d) Appropriate Rate Mortgages
e) Anomalous Rate Mortgages

13. Name the only Private Sector Bank in the country which is designated as RBI's agent for banking business and carries out the banking business of Central Government?
a) HDFC
b) ICICI
c) J&K Bank
d) YES Bank
e) AXIS Bank

14. 'Good People to Bank With' is the tagline of:
a) United Bank of India
b) UCO Bank
c) Union Bank of India
d) Indian Overseas Bank
e) Vijaya Bank

15. AMRUT is urban transformation scheme with the focus of the urban renewal projects to establish infrastructure that could ensure adequate robust sewerage networks and water supply. Expand AMRUT.
a) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
b) Atal Mission for Reconstruction and Urban Transformation
c) Atal Mission for Rural and Urban Transformation
d) Awas Mission for Rural and Urban Transformation
e) None of the above

16. The Headquarters of Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Ltd (SPMCIL) is located in:
a) New Delhi
b) Bengaluru
c) Chennai
d) Trivandrum
e) Hyderabad

17. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is a wholly owned subsidiary of:
a) Central Government
b) Reserve Banks of India
c) NABARD
d) SIDBI
e) None of the above

18. With an aim to strengthen Regional Rural Banks, as per the Bill introduced in the Lok Sabha during 2013, the authorized capital of the Regional Rural Banks to be raised to Rs. _____
a) 1000 crore
b) 500 crore
c) 2500 crore
d) 50 crore
e) 200 crore

19. Banks have to submit Suspicious Transactions Report(STR) to FIU-IND (Financial Intelligence Unit - India) as a part of antimoney laundering measures where the transactions:
a) Appears to be unusual or unjustified complexity
b) Appears to have no economic rationale or bonafide purpose
c) Source of funds are doubtful
d) Are not in commensurate with the business of the customer
e) All the above

20. Which of the following points are true with respect to PM Garib Kalyan Yojana?
a) The deposits under PMGKY shall not bear any interest
b) The Bonds Ledger account shall not be tradable
c) No commission / agency bank charges will be paid to the banks for accepting deposits under the scheme
d) The transferability of Bond Ledger Account shall be limited to nominee or to the legal heir of an individual holder, in the event of his death
e) All of the above

21. What type of loan is granted by banks for purchase of white goods?
a) Loan given for purchase of cotton seeds
b) Mortgage loan
c) Consumer durables loan
d) Home loan
e) Dairy loan

22. Which of the following is True regarding QR Code?
a) QR stands for Quick response Code
b) It is a payment transfer mechanism
c) It eliminates the need for PoS machines at a merchant outlet
d) There is no problem of loss of card or card expiry problems
e) All the above

23. Under Rural and Urban Housing for poor, PM announced two new housing schemes for the urban
poor recently. Under Pradhan Mantri Aawas Yojana (PMAY), the poor and middle class in cities
will get ___ exemption on interest for home loans up to Rs. 9 lakh and ___ exemption for home loans up to Rs.12 lakh.
a) 3%; 4%
b) 4%; 3%
c) 2%; 3%
d) 4%; 5%
e) 5%; 6%

24. Lien is a/an _______ of the creditor to retain possession.
a) Right
b) Obligation
c) Instrument
d) Interest
e) None of the above

25. The 'Banker's 'Fair Practice' code was brought out in June 2004 by:
a) IBA
b) RBI
c) Government of India
d) Banking Ombudsman
e) NABARD

26. In a Hindu undivided family the business of the family is managed by:
a) Karta
b) Proprietor
c) Partner
d) Director
e) Co-Parcenors

27. A Public Limited Company shares are:
a) Not transferable
b) Transferable
c) The Act is silent
d) Transferable only if they are purchased in Primary Market
e) a & d

28. With an objective to give boost to the small entrepreneurs, credit guarantee for small businesses
(CGTMSE) has been enhanced from Rs. 1 crore to ______
a) Rs. 1.5 crore
b) Rs. 2 crore
c) Rs. 3 crore
d) Rs. 4 crore
e) Rs. 5 crore

29. Which of the following is not a Material Alteration?
a) Alteration of the date
b) Alteration of the sum payable
c) Alteration of Signature (Forgery)
d) Alteration of the name of payee
e) Alteration of the crossing

30. Under what circumstances banks can with held payments of customers?
a) When a customer is declared insolvent by the court
b) When a company goes on liquidation since the rights of account rests with the official liquidator
c) When the customer become insane
d) When the cheque is countermanded
e) All the above

31. A Fund of Funds is a scheme that invests primarily in:
a) Money market instruments
b) Other schemes of the same mutual fund or other mutual funds
c) The bullion market
d) The Government Securities
e) Primary market only

32. Which of the following are the advantages of Cheque Truncation System (CTS)?
a) A Faster clearing cycle to provide better customer service
b) Minimize transaction costs and loss of instruments can be avoided
c) Additional Security Features
d) Frauds can be eliminated
e) All the above

33. The Indian Banking System is regulated in terms of the provisions of ____ Act, 1934 and ___
a) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
b) Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
c) Payment and Settlement Act, 2007
d) Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
e) None of the above

34. When affairs of a bank is conducted in such a manner that gives a fair deal to all the stake holders, it is called:
a) Risk Management
b) Effective Management
c) Total Management
d) Corporate Governance
e) Mirror Management

35. The type of arrangement under which a bank pays the seller the value of the bill and later collects it from the buyer on the due date is called_____
a) Bill discounting
b) Factoring
c) Forfaiting
d) Deferred Collection
e) None

ANSWERS: 
1) a 2) c 3) c 4) d 5) d 6) c 7) b 8) d 9) a 10) a
11) a 12) c 13) c 14) c 15) a 16) a 17) b 18) b 19) e 20) e
21) c 22) e 23) b 24) a 25) a 26) a 27) b 28) b 29) c 30) e
31) b 32) e 33) a 34) d 35) a

Tuesday, July 11, 2017

IBPS Recruitment of Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee posts

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection(IBPS) invites applications for online examination (Preliminary and Main) for the next Common Recruitment Process for selection of personnel for Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee posts in the Participating Organisations(CWE PO/ MT-VII) is tentatively scheduled in October/ November 2017.

Vacancies:

1. Allahabad Bank: 447 Posts
2. Andhra Bank: 200 Posts
3. Bank of India: 200 Posts
4. Canara Bank: 900 Posts
5. Central Bank of India: 200 Posts
6. Oriental Bank of Commerce: 300 Posts
7. Punjab National Bank: 400 Posts
8. Punjab & Sind Bank: 100 Posts
9. Union Bank of India: 400 Posts
10. United Bank of India: 100 Posts
Total No. of Posts: 3247


Education Qualification : Candidates who have completed Any Degree or equivalent from a recognized Institute are Eligible to apply IBPS Recruitment 2017

Age Limit : 20 to 30 years As on 01.07.2017 .Age of Relaxation is Applicable 5 years For SC/ST candidates ,3 years For OBC Candidates & 10 years For PWD Candidates.


Pay Scale : Rs.23700-42020/- Per Month


Application Fee :
 General/OBC : Rs.600/- All Other Candidates (ST/SC/PWD) Application Fee : Rs.100/-


Selection Process : The candidates will be selected on the basis of Online Preliminary Examination, Main Examination and Personal Interview.


How to Apply : Candidates have to apply online through IBPS website http://www.ibps.in/ between 06.08.2017 to 26.08.2017.

Important Dates

Application Online Start : 06 August, 2017 
Last Date for Registration : 26 August, 2017 
Last Date Fee Payment : 26 August, 2017 

Important Links
Download Notification : Click Here 
Apply Online : http://www.ibps.in/Apply 
Official Website : http://www.ibps.in

Sunday, July 9, 2017

BANKING AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR BANK EXAMS

1. First bank started in India with solely Indian capital investment is:
a) Bank of Baroda
b) Punjab National Bank
c) Punjab & Sind Bank
d) Central Bank of India
e) Canara Bank

2. The banker acts as a Bailee and the customer as Bailor, this relationship is applicable:
a) when a bank lends funds to a corporate customer
b) when a bank accepts US$ FCNR deposits form a NRI customer
c) when a customer operates a safe deposit locker
d) when a customer keeps articles in safe custody with a bank
e) None of the above


3. Which of the following is not a financial intermediary?
a) Banks
b) Financial institutions
c) Mutual funds
d) Non-bank finance companies
e) Companies engaged in manufacturing of good

4. Acustomers lost the Fixed Deposit Receipt issued by the bank. To obtain a duplicate FD he needs to furnish:
a) A Promissory note
b) A collateral security
c) A Letter of Credit
d) An Indemnity bond
e) Counter guarantee by the customer

5. Reserve Bank of India's functions are classified into:
a) Supervisory & Regulatory
b) Promotional & Developmental 132
c) Refinance Activities
d) a & b only
e) a, b & c

6. The scope of activities undertaken by the business correspondents will not include:
a) Disbursal of small value credit
b) Recovery of principal/collection of interest
c) Collection of small value deposits
d) Payment of money on demand drafts not exceeding Rs. 1,000
e) None of the above

7. In strategic Alliance, the alliance partners:
a) Merge with each other 220
b) One partner acquires the other
c) Remain separate entities
d) Amalgamate with one another
e) None of the above

8. A company which pools money from investors and invests in stocks, bonds, shares is called:
a) A bank
b) An insurance company
c) Bank assurance
d) Mutual Fund
e) None of the above

9. Mr. X who is an Ordinary SB account holder of a branch wants to nominate Mr. Y, an U.S. national, who is his friend. Is that allowed?
a) Yes it is freely permitted
b) Yes it is freely permitted, but at the time of settlement of claim and repatriation to the
nominee, branch has to take RBI permission
c) Yes it is freely permitted, subject to Regional office approval
d) Yes it is freely permitted, subject to CO approval
e) No it cannot be allowed

10. In a cheque, the word "Order" is changed to "bearer" by the holder of the cheque. This is called as:
a) Endorsement
b) Material alteration
c) Crossing
d) Special Crossing
e) Allonge

11. If a customer dies without leaving a will and the court appoints a person to handle the customer's Property. Such a person is called as:
a) An administrator
b) An executor
c) A liquidator
d) A successor
e) An Authorised Officer

12. Garnishee order is issued by:
a) Judgment Debtor
b) Judgment Creditor
c) Reserve Bank of India
d) The Court
d) Income Tax Department

13. One of the NRI customers wants to place FCNR deposits in Canadian $ with a bank. Can the
account be opened in Canadian Dollars?
a) Yes, his request can be accepted and open a FCNR a/c
b) No, Bank can not accept his request to open FCNR a/c in Canadian $
c) Will inform the customer to place FCNR in any one of the currencies (US$/ GBP/ JPY/ EUR)
d) Can open after seeking permission from Head Office
e) Can open after obtaining clearance from RBI

14. Which of the following is the the First Paper Currency Note issued by the RBI bearing the portrait of King Geoge VI?
a) Two Rupee Note
b) Five Rupee Note
c) Ten Rupee Note
d) Twenty Rupee Note
e) Fifty Rupee Note

15. Which of the following is the scheme for skill development of minorities?
a) Padho aur kamao
b) Seekho aur kamao
c) Kamao aur jiyo
d) Padho aur Seekho
e) None of the above

16. Capital adequacy is worked out based on:
a) Total demand and time liabilities
b) Net demand and time assets
c) Risk weighted assets
d) Risk weighted liabilities
e) None of the above

17. A Co-Operative Bank operating in different States are regulated by:
a) State Co-Operative Societies Act
b) Banking Regulation Act
c) Multi Unit Co-Operative Societies Act
d) Banking Laws (applicable to Co-Operative Societies)
e) RBI Act 1934

18. If a cheque is accidentally torn by the drawer, the cheque ___
a) Can't be paid
b) Can be paid, if the holder confirms the mutilation
c) Can be paid, if the drawer confirms the mutilation and if otherwise in order
d) Can't be paid, even if the drawer confirms the mutilation and otherwise in order
e) None of the above

19. Tele banking is not based on:
a) Virtual banking,
b) Voice processing,
c) Online banking
d) a & c
e) None of the above

20. Cash payment of Term deposits is possible, if the amount doesn't exceed Rs.:
a) 20,000
b) 25,000
c) 30,000
d) 40,000
e) 50,000

21. Balance in a current account is classified as:
a) Hybrid deposit
b) Term deposit
c) Demand deposit
d) Flexi deposit
e) None of the above

22. The rate at which domestic currency can be converted in to foreign currency and vice-versa is known as:
a) LIBOR
b) Base Rate
c) Repo Rate
d) Exchange Rate
e) Inter Bank Call Money Rate

23. Hypothecation is applicable in the case of ____.
a) Movable goods
b) Immovable property
c) Loan against Insurance Policies
d) Corporate guarantee
e) Gold Loan

24. The minimum percentage of Priority Sector advances to be maintained by foreign banks in India with less than 20 branches is __.
a) 40%
b) 18%
c) 32%
d) 50%
e) 60 %

25. One of the State Government avails of a temporary financial assistance from Reserve Bank of
India. This type of finance is called:
a) Overdraft
b) Temporary loan
c) Short term finance
d) Ways and Means advance
e) Repo

26. Which one of the following is known as 'Demat' account?
a) Account in which shares are held in electronic form
b) Other than those given as options
c) Account allowed to be operated by guardian of minor
d) Account operated by business correspondents in rural
e) None of the above

27. External commercial borrowings are governed under:
a) Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
b) Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial assets and enforcement of security interest Act
c) Debt Recovery Tribunal Act
d) Foreign exchange management Act
e) None of the above

28. Maximum Bank Rate that can be declared by the Reserve Bank of India is:
a) 6%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 1% over MCLR
e) No such ceiling

29. Obligation of a Banker to maintain secrecy is applicable to:
a) Only in case of existing deposit accounts
b) Only in respect existing loan accounts
c) Only in case of closed accounts
d) All types of deposit/loan accounts (existing/closed)
e) No need of maintaining secrecy to exhibit transparency in banking transactions

30. A mortgage involves:
a) Transfer of ownership
b) Transfer of interest in Immovable property
c) Transfer of possession
d) a & c
e) None of the above

31. Bank A allows one of its clients to withdraw against clearing of a cheque. The banker is called as:
a) Collecting Banker
b) Holder in due course
c) Holder for value
d) Reimbursement banker
e) Paying Banker

32. As per the provisions of NI Act,1881 a banker gets protection for payment of a cheque only if it is a:
a) Holder in due course
b) Payment in due course
c) Holder for value
d) Not Negotiable Instrument
e) All of the above

33. SARFAESI Act 2002 is applicable to:
a) All states excluding Jammu and Kashmir
b) All states including Jammu and Kashmir
c) All Banks including Foreign Banks and RRBs
d) Only Union Terrirories
e) b & c

34. Management of a Bank vests with:
a) Reserve Bank of Indian
b) Asset Liability Committee (ALCO)
c) Board of Directors
d) Share Holders
e) a & d

35. Rajender Singh, gives a written stop payment instructions of a cheque Rs. 50/- to his banker.
This should be treated by the bank as:
a) A request from Sekhar
b) An intimation from Sekhar
c) An advice from Sekhar
d) A mandate from Sekhar
e) None of the above as the stop payment is for a small amount

36. Banks can grant loans against:
a) LIC Policy
b) CDs
c) FD issues other bank
d) Mutual fund
e) All the above

ANSWERS: 
1) b 2) d 3) e 4) d 5) e 6) d 7) c 8) d 9) b 10) b
11) a 12) d 13) a 14) b 15) b 16) c 17) c 18) c 19) d 20) a
21) c 22) d 23) a 24) c 25) d 26) a 27) d 28) e 29) d 30) b
31) c 32) b 33) b 34) c 35) d 36) a

Saturday, July 8, 2017

BANKING AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR BANK EXAMS

1. The Government share holding in National Investment Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is going to be ___:
a) 40 %
b) 49%
c) 50%
d) 51%
e) 30%

2. Can nomination be made by an illiterate depositor?
a) Yes, by affixing his Thumb Impression without witness
b) Yes, by affixing his Thumb Impression with one witness
c) Yes, by affixing his Thumb Impression with two witnesses
d) No, such nomination may be under influence may not hold legal validity
e) At the discretion of the Branch Head

3. EXIM bank was established in the year?
a) 1957
b) 1992
c)1982
d) 1981
e) 1983

4. In 'Small Accounts' , balance at any point of time should not exceed ______:
a) Rs.50,000
b) Rs.1,00,000
c) Rs.10,000
d) Rs.25,000
e) None of these

5. As per RBI directives, banks are allowed opening a minor account subject to the following conditions. Which among the following is correct?
a) Only fixed, savings and recurring deposits accounts can be opened
b) Mother can also be accepted as a guardian
c) The accounts can also be opened in the guardianship of the mother, even if the father of the minor is living
d) Only a & b
e) All a, b & c

6. National Housing Bank monitors the performance of ___:
a) Liberalized Finance Scheme
b) Golden Jubilee Rural Housing Finance Scheme
c) Energy Efficient Housing Finance Scheme
d) Finance scheme for indirect loans
e) None of the above

7. Which among the following made the initial contribution for setting up Financial Inclusion
Fund and Financial Inclusion Technology Fund?
a) Government of India, NABARD and RBI
b) NABARD, UTI and RBI
c) SIDBI, Government of India and IDBI Bank
d) SIDBI, NABARD and UTI
e) NABARD, RIDF, RBI

8. National Housing Bank, a wholly- owned subsidiary of RBI started its operations from ___:
a) July, 1982
b) July, 1988
c) April, 1980
d) March, 1971
e) March, 1983

9. The Maturity period of Certificate of deposits issued by banks is seven days to one year, whereas
the certificate of deposits issued by Financial Institutions should be not less than One year and not exceeding ___:
a) 2 years
b) 3 years
c) 4 years
d) 6 years
e) None of the above

10. The Minimum capital requirement as per the final guidelines for Universal Banks is __:
a) Rs. 500 crore
b) Rs. 200 crore
c) Rs. 300 crore
d) Rs. 100 crore
e) Rs. 1000 crore

11. Which of the following statement is wrong relating to SIDBI.
a) SIDBI means Small Industries Development Bank of India
b) It was established on April 2, 1990
c) It is the principal financial institution for the promotion, financing and development of industry in the small-scale sector
d) Its Head Office is in Hyderabad
e) It has floated Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises

12. Which of the following is a specific division of banking related to the creation of capital for other
companies, governments and other entities?
a) Merchant banking
b) Investment banking
c) Commercial banking
d) Wholesale banking
e) None of these

13. Name the first country which introduced plastic currency notes?
a) USA
b) UK
c) Russia
d) Australia
e) Germany

14. Authorized Dealers for foreign exchange transactions are appointed by:
a) Reserve Bank of India
b) Government of India
c) Individual Banks
d) FEDAI
e) None of the above

15. In terms of RBI Guidelines Banks should report credit information to Central Repository of
Information on Large Credits (CRILC) of the borrowers having aggregate fund based or non
fund based exposure of ____ once in a quarter.
a) Rs. 3 Crore and above
b) Rs. 5 Crore and above
c) Rs. 7 Crore and above
d) Rs. 8 Crore and above
e) Rs. 1 Crore and above

16. Which of the following loans are less risky from the bankers point of view?
a) Housing loans
b) Vehicle loans
c) Personal Loans
d) Credit Card advances
e) b & c

17. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India was constituted in the year___:
a) 1938
b) 1971
c) 1993
d) 1999
e) 2000

18. Rajkiran Rai G will be taking charge as Managing Director & CEO of _____ from 1.7.2017
a) Union Bank of India
b) Syndicate Bank
c) Uco Bank
d) United Bank of India
e) Vijaya Bank

19. Interest Rate Risk in Banking Book (IRRBB) refers to which of the following?
a) Companies accounts books
b) Current or prospective risk to a bank's capital and earnings, arising from adverse movements in interest rates that affect banking book positions
c) Government accounts books
d) NGOs books
e) None of these

20. Under the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) in fertilizer sector, the subsidy will be released to whom?
a) Milk vendors
b) The fertilizer companies instead of the beneficiaries, after the sale is made by the retailers to the beneficiaries
c) NGOs
d) Gram Panchayats
e) None of these

21. When certain projects are not commercially viable Government may go in for funding
Public Private Partnership(PPP). Such fund is called as ___:
a) Bridge funding
b) Viability gap funding
c) Bonus funding
d) Premium funding
e) Ways and means funding

22. Balance in which of the following account is not repatriable?
a) NRO
b) FCNR
c) NRO
d) b & c
e) All the above

23. When a bank fails causing instability in the financial system, such risk is called ____:
a) Systemic Risk
b) Market Risk
c) Credit Risk
d) Operational Risk
e) Systematic Risk

24. Normally banks will not give big ticket loans for longer tenures as it may lead to:
a) Insolvency
b) Liquidation
c) Asset-Liability mismatch
d) Bank Run
e) All the above

25. Which of the following is not a credit facility extended for short duration?
a) Bridge Loan
b) Term Loan
c) Commercial Paper
d) Bill Discounting
e) None of the above

26. Sometimes after disbursing the loan, banks will give reasonable time to customers to start repayment of loan. Such repayment facility is known as ____:
a) Amortization
b) Leverage
c) Balloon payment
d) Moratorium
e) Bullet payment

27. RBI regulates ceiling limit of interest for _____ deposits.
a) Savings
b) Recurring
c) Fixed
d) FCNR(B)
e) None of the above

28. GSTN (Goods and Service net work) is managed by?
a) Tech Mahendra
b) Wipro
c) Infosys
d) TCS
e) HCL Technologies Ltd

29. Which of the following takes care of export credit risks?
a) ECGC
b) GIC Re
c) EXIM Bank
d) RBI
e) DGFT

30. When the window for granting licenses is open through out the year, it is categorized as:
a) Open-tap Licensing
b) Off-tap Licensing
c) On-tap Licensing
d) For-tap Licensing
e) Free-tap Licensing

31. ATM transactions are interchangeable among the banks and this is made possible because of:
a) NFS - National Financial Switch
b) SWIFT - Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication
c) NEFT - National Electronic Funds Transfer
d) SFMS - Structured Financial Messaging System
e) None of the above

32. A negotiable instrument can be transferred legally and is possible with__:
a) Encumbrance
b) Endorsement
c) Moratorium
d) Write off
e) Right of set off

33. Which of the following is not one among the cities where Rs. 10 plastic bank notes will be introduced?
a) Hyderabad
b) Mysore
c) Bhubaneswar
d) Shimla
e) Cochin

34. Governing Council for BCSBI is appointed by:
a) Finance Ministry
b) Reserve Bank of India
c) A panel headed by Cabinet Secretary
d) Cabinet Committee on appointments
e) Indian Banks Association

35. Which of the following depicts the financial position of a bank or business enterprise at a given
point of time?
a) Balance sheet
b) Cash flow statement
c) Income statement
d) Model audit
e) Profit & Loss Account

36. General crossing of a cheque means:
a) Two cross lines across the cheque
b) The cheque can have an abbreviation "& Co. "between the two parallel lines
c) The cheque can have the words "Not Negotiable" between the two parallel lines
d) Cash will not be paid across the counter
e) All the above

37. Which is the largest foreign bank in India?
a) American Express Bank Ltd.
b) DBS Bank Ltd.
c) HSBC Ltd.
d) Standard Chartered Bank
e) United Overseas Bank Ltd.

ANSWERS: 
1) b 2) b 3) c 4) a 5) e 6) b 7) a 8) b 9) b 10) a
11) d 12) b 13) d 14) a 15) b 16) a 17) d 18) a 19) b 20) b
21) b 22) a 23) a 24) c 25) b 26) d 27) d 28) d 29) a 30) c
31) a 32) b 33) a 34) b 35) a 36) e 37) d

Thursday, July 6, 2017

China tests a 'lunar palace' on earth

Chinese students will live in a laboratory simulating a lunar-like environment for up to 200 days as Beijing prepares for its long-term goal of putting humans on the moon.
Four postgraduate students from the capital's astronautics research university Beihang entered the 160- square-metre cabin dubbed the 'Yuegong-1' or 'Lunar Palace'.

BrahMos missile achieves rare feat

The Army carried out a successful test of the advanced BrahMos Block III Land Attack Cruise Missile (LACM) in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Testing BrahMos in the Andaman and Nicobar islands is a symbolic statement, as it brings the strategic Malacca straits under its range.
BrahMos is a product of joint collaboration between India and Russia and is capable of being launched from land, sea, sub-sea and air against surface and sea-based targets.
The range of the supersonic missile was initially capped at 290 km as per the obligations of the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR). Since India's entry into the club, the range has been extended to 450 km and the plan is to increase it to 600 km.

Geographical Indication tag for Andhra Pradesh's Banganapalle mango

 The succulent Banganapalle mango has got a Geographical Indication (GI) tag, making Andhra Pradesh the proprietor of the variety knows for its sweetness.
Banganapalle mangoes have been grown for over 100 years in the state. It also known as Beneshan, Baneshan, Benishan, Chappatai and Safeda.
GI is covered under the Intellectual Property Rights and the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).
 A GI tag certifies the origin of a product or produce from a particular region as the quality or other features of the product are attributable only to the place of its origin.

Monday, July 3, 2017

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR ALL BANK EXAMS

1. On 16 June 2017, RBI released a notification amending the .....
1) Banking Ombudsman Scheme 2000
2) Banking Ombudsman Scheme 2001
3) Banking Ombudsman Scheme 2004
4) Banking Ombudsman Scheme 2010
5) Banking Ombudsman Scheme 2006

2. Pecuniary jurisdiction of the Banking Ombudsman to pass an award has been doubled to ........

1) Rs.20 lakh 
2) Rs.10 lakh
3) Rs.2 lakh 
4) Rs.40 lakh 
5) Rs.30 lakh

3. As per the amended rules of Ombudsman scheme, the compensation not exceeding .......... can also be awarded by the Ombudsman to the complainant for loss of time, expenses incurred as also, harassment and mental anguish suffered by the complainant

1) Rs.1 lakh 
2) Rs.10 lakh 
3) Rs.5 lakh
4) Rs.2 lakh 
5) Rs.1.5 lakh

4. RBI on 16 June 2017, extended the scope of Ombudsman Scheme under which banks could be penalized for mis-selling third-party products like insurance and mutual funds via mobile or electronic banking. What is the aim of formulating Banking Ombudsman Scheme by RBI?

1) to promote the deposits in the unbanked areas as the part of Financial inclusion
2) to promote lending among the poor people, as they are depending on non-institutional sources
3) to redress the grievances or complaints arising out of the deficiency in the banking services
4) to universalize the discount of commercial bills issued by Commercial Banks
5) to incorporate the list of Scheduled banks in the RBI Act 1934

5. RBI introduced Banking Ombudsman Scheme as per Section 35 A of .....

1) Negotiable Instruments Act 1881
2) SARFAESI Act 2002
3) Banking Regulation Act 1949
4) FEMA, 1999 
5) RBI ACT, 1934

6. Ombudsman scheme first introduced in.......

1) USA 
2) India
3) Australia 
4) France 
5) UK

7. Which bank covered under the Banking Ombudsman Scheme?

1) Scheduled Public Sector Banks
2) Scheduled Private Sector Banks
3) Regional Rural Banks
4) Scheduled Primary Co-operative Banks
5) All of above

8. Banking Ombudsman is a senior official appointed by...........

1) Finance Minister 
2) RBI 
3) SEBI
4) FSDC 
5) None

9. As per the present rules, any person can file a complaint before the Banking Ombudsman, if the satisfied reply is not received from the bank within a period of..........

1) One month 
2) Three months
3) Two months 
4) Six months
5) Twelve months

10. The Ombudsman rejects the compliant of the customer if...

1) the customer does not approach the bank first
2) one has not made the complaint within one year from the date one has received the reply of the bank or if no reply is received if it is more than one year and one month from the date of representation to the bank
3) subject matter of the complaint is pending for disposal / has already been dealt with at any other forum like court of law, consumer court
4) complaint is Frivolous or vexatious
5) In all above cases, the Ombudsman will not accept the compliant from customer

11. The fee collected by Ombudsman to take compliant from the customer?

1) Rs.5 
2) Rs.100
3) Rs.10 
4) fix by the bank
5) No fee collects by the Ombudsman

12. The Ombudsman take the compliant and can take action if ......

1) non-payment or delay in payment of inward remittances
2) non-credit of proceeds to parties accounts, non-payment of deposit or nonobservance of the Reserve Bank directives
3) not accepting the legal tender and or for charging of commission in respect thereof
4) inordinate delay in the payment or collection of cheques, drafts, bills
5) In the all above cases the Ombudsman take action against bank

13. When the Ombudsman take action against the bank?

1) collecting charges without adequate prior notice to the customer
2) refusal to accept or delay in accepting payment towards taxes, as required by government
3) refusal to close or delay in closing the accounts
4) non-observance of Reserve Bank guidelines on engagement of recovery agents by banks
5) In the above all cases, Ombudsman take action against the bank

14. The RBI framed a rule that any customer not satisfied with Ombudsman decision, then the customer can put an appeal to.........

1) Governor, RBI
2) Governor of that State
3) Finance Minister of India
4) President of India
5) Deputy Governor of RBI

15. RBI amended Banking Ombudsman Scheme includes complaints relating to Internet Banking and Non-adherence to BCSBI Code on 5 February 2009. BCSBI stands for.........

1) Banking Core and Standards Board of India
2) Banking Codes and State Board of India
3) Banking Codes and Standards Board of India
4) Business Codes and Standards Board of India
5) Banking Codes and Standards Bureau of India

16. RBI constituted committee under the Chairmanship of ................. to review the Ombudsman Scheme on 7 January 2013?

1) C. Ranga Rajan 
2) Suma Chakravarti
3) Suma Verma 
4) Usha Thorat
5) S.S.Mundra

17. 'RTGS' can be defined as the continuous settlement of funds transfers individually on an order by order basis (without netting). In this context, RTGS stands for...........

1) Real Time Glad Settlement
2) Real Tick Gross Settlement
3) Real Time Gross Settlement
4) RBI Time Gross Settlement
5) Real Time Gross Statement

18. In Real Time Gross Settlement transfer, 'Real Time' means .....

1) Money actually transferred in the rupees only
2) Money sending by the individual account holder only as the companies not allowed to do online transactions
3) Account holder advancing money to the beneficiary, which can be transferred at the later time
4) The processing of instructions at the time they are received rather than at some later time
5) All above are wrong statements

19. In RTGS, 'Gross Settlement' means........

1) settlement of funds done occasionally (order disputed with the bank)
2) settlement is not final, though it can be send now (order is in suspense mode)
3) settlement of funds happened later (urgency is not there )
4) settlement of funds transfer instructions occurs individually (on an instruction by instruction basis)
5) None of these

20. In the RTGS, funds settlement takes place in the books of the RBI, the payments are.........

1) put in pending 
2) not final at all
3) final but revocable
4) final and irrevocable
5) None of the above statement is correct

21. Minimum amount to be remitted through RTGS is .......

1) Rs.5 lakh 
2) Rs.1.5 lakh
3) Rs.2 lakh 
4) Rs.2.5 lakh
5) Rs.1.2 lakh

22. The Maximum amount can be send through RTGS is ..........

1) Rs.20 lakh 
2) Rs.12 lakh
3) Rs.2 lakh 
4) Rs.1 crore
5) There is no upper limit

23. In RTGS, under normal circumstances the beneficiary branches are expected to receive the funds in real time as soon as funds are transferred by the remitting bank. The beneficiary bank has to credit the beneficiary's account within .......... of receiving the funds transfer message

1) 5 minutes 
2) 10 minutes
3) 60 minutes 
4) 30 minutes
5) 90 minutes

24. Which of the following statement is wrong relating to RTGS?

1) remitting bank receives a message from the Reserve Bank that money has been credited to the receiving bank
2) remitting customer get back the money if it is not credited to the beneficiary's account
3) remitting customer does not get back the money if it is not credited to the beneficiary's account
4) All inward RTGS transactions free
5) IFSC Number of the receiving branch must be mentioned by transferor

25. IMPS is an innovative real time payment service that is available round the clock. In this context, IMPS stands for............

1) Indian Payment Service
2) Instant Payment Service
3) Immediate Portion Service
4) Immediate Payment Service
5) Immediate Patent Service

26. Which of the following one is not the advantage of IMPS?

1) instant transfer
2) Available 24 × 7 (functional even on holidays)
3) Channel Independent can be initiated from Mobile/ Internet / ATM channels
4) Safe and secure, easily accessible and cost effective
5) All of above are the advantages of IMPS

27. Both banked as well as un-banked customer can avail IMPS. However, unbanked customer can initiate IMPS transaction using the services of PPI. PPI in this context stands for...........

1) Principle Paid Payments instrument issuer
2) Pre Paid Payments instrument issuer
3) Pre Paid PAN instrument issuer
4) Post Paid Payments instrument issuer
5) Pre Poll Payments instrument issuer

28. MMID issued by the bank. Combination of Mobile number & MMID is uniquely linked with an Account number and helps in identifying the beneficiary details. MMID stands for............

1) Mode Money Identifier
2) Mobile Made Identifier
3) Mobile Money Identifier
4) Mobile Moment Identifier
5) Mobile Money Indication

29. QSAM (Query Service on Aadhaar Mapper) service helps user in knowing their Aadhaar Seeding status with their bank account. QSAM service can be available by dialing which number?

1) *99# 
2) *99*99# 
3) *100#
4) *99*9# 
5) *1234#


30. India has recently donated how much amount to UN Peace Building Fund (PBF)?
1) $4 Lakh

2) $5 Lakh
3) $6 Lakh
4) $8 Lakh
5) None of these

ANSWERS:
1-5, 2-1, 3-1, 4-3, 5-3, 6-5, 7-5, 8-2, 9-1, 10-5
11-5, 12-5, 13-5, 14-5, 15-3, 16-3, 17-3, 18-4, 19-4, 20-4
21-3, 22-5, 23-4, 24-3, 25-4, 26-5, 27-2, 28-3, 29-2, 30-2.