IBPS CRP-V Specialist Officer (Marketing) Exam Professional Knowledge Solved Paper (Exam Held on 02-02-2016)

1. A tangible product that the consumer feels comfortable purchasing without gathering additional information and then actually buys with minimum of effort is termed a(n)– 
(a) Shopping good (b) Convenience good (c) Business product (d) Specially good (e) Unsought good (Ans : b)

2. The process of dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers who have different needs, characteristics or behaviours and who might require separate products or marketing programs is called– 
(a) Market segmentation (b) Market positioning (c) Market differentiation (d) Market targeting (e) Marketing mix (Ans : a)

3. ………. is not a stage of product life cycle in marketing. 
(a) Introduction (b) Maturity (c) Growth (d) Decline (e) Planning (Ans : e)

4. ……….Which of the following is not a characteristic important in influencing an innovator's rate of adoption? 
(a) Organisation type of the innovator (b) Compatibility (c) Divisibility (d) Communicability (e) Complexity (Ans : a)

5. The financial contracts whose values are obtained from the values of underlying assets are– 
(a) mortgage (b) commercial papers (c) stocks (d) derivatives (e) bonds (Ans : d)

6. All of the following are considered to be broad market-follower strategies except– 
(a) innovator (b) imitator (c) cloner (d) counterteller (e) adapter (Ans : a)

7. A company has four choices when it comes to developing brands. Which one of the following is not one among them? 
(a) New brands (b) Multi brands (c) Brand extension (d) Line extension (e) Brand sponsoring (Ans : e)

8. ………. is a demand state where consumer may share a strong need that cannot be satisfied by an existing model. 
(a) Declining demand (b) Irregular demand (c) Negative demand (d) Non-existent demand (e) Latent demand (Ans : e)

9. ………. is the development, design and implementation of marketing programme, processes and activities that recognises the breadth and inter-dependencies of today's marketing environment. 
(a) Niche marketing (b) Supply chain marketing (c) Holistic marketing (d) Relationship marketing (e) Demand-centred marketing (Ans : c)

10. The ………. holds that marketing strategy should deliver value to customers in a way that maintain or improve both the consumer's and society's well-being. 
(a) societal marketing concept (b) society centered marketing (c) customer centered marketing 
(d) focused business model (e) production centered business (Ans : a)

11. Major oil producers carryon oil exploration, oil drilling, oil refining, chemical manufacture and service-station operation. When an organisation does all of these separate tasks distribution channel they can be said to have achieved what is called– 
(a) Parallel marketing (b) Horizontal integration (c) Vertical integration 
(d) Concentric integration (e) Conglomerate marketing (Ans : c)

12. Which of the following describes the tendency of people to interpret information in a way that will support what they already believe? 
(a) Selective creativity (b) Selective distortion (c) Selective matching 
(d) Selective attraction (e) Selective attribute (Ans : b)

13. The ………. stage of a product is characterised as being one where there is period of rapid climb in sales and substantial profit improvement. 
(a) introduction (b) decline (c) maturity (d) saturation (e) growth (Ans : e)

14. The discomfort caused by post purchase conflict is called– 
(a) Dissatisfaction (b) Cognitive dissonance (c) Post purchase behaviour (d) Buyer's remorse (e) Comparative tension (Ans : b)

15. ………. is the study of how individuals, groups and organisations select, buy, use and dispose of goods, services, ideas or experiences to satisfy their needs and wants. 
(a) Psychology (b) Product differentiation (c) Psychographic segmentation (d) Target marketing (e) Consumer behaviour (Ans : e)

16. Mutual Funds are regulated in the country by– 
(a) IRDAI (b) Association of Mutual Funds of India (AMFI) (c) NABARD 
(d) Securities and Exchange Board of India (e) Reserve Bank of India (Ans : d)

17. Situation in which a firm introduces new products to stimulate sales but the profit comes at the expense of other products sold by that firm is called– 
(a) repositioning (b) push marketing (c) differentiated marketing (d) cannibalisation (e) cartelisation (Ans : d)

18. Cultivating opinion leaders and getting them to spread information about a product or service to others in their communities is– 
(a) Buzz marketing (b) Leader marketing (c) Niche marketing (d) Complex marketing (e) Selective marketing (Ans : e)

19. Marketing management is defined as– 
(a) monitoring the profitability of the' company's products and services (b) the art and science of choosing target markets and building profitable relationships with them 
(c) managing the market process (d) developing marketing strategies to move the company forward 
(e) selecting target markets to deploy marketers (Ans : c)

20. The measure of the brand's ability to capture consumer performance and loyalty is termed as– 
(a) Brand superiority (b) Brand equity (c) Brand version (d) Brand loyalty (e) Brand preference (Ans : d)

21. Mission statements are at their best when they reflect a ………. to an almost impossible dream that provides direction for the next 10 to 30 years. 
(a) market (b) strength (c) competency (d) vision (e) value (Ans : d)

22. A strategy in which the initial price of the product is set low in relation to the target market's range of expected prices is termed as– 
(a) Market skimming pricing (b) Old pricing (c) Discount market pricing 
(d) Market penetration pricing (e) Special market pricing (Ans : d)

23. A group of tradition bound consumers who are the tool to adapt an innovation is called as– 
(a) Challengers (b) Leaders (c) Innovators (d) Laggards (e) Loyal agents (Ans : c)

24. Low prices on products for which you have accurate price knowledge lets you know that the product has to be a bargain. This type of pricing is termed as– 
(a) Reference pricing (b) Psychological pricing (c) Volume pricing (d) Promotional pricing (e) Signpost pricing (Ans : d)

25. The want satisfying power of a product is called its– 
(a) price (b) utility (c) bond (d) purpose (e) goal (Ans : b)

26. Based on the rates firms charge in the target market in a specific industry, they are classified as following except in a– 
(a) Market challenger (b) Market plotter (c) Market leader (d) Market nicher (e) Market follower (Ans : b)

27. TQM approach in which all the people of the company are involved in constantly improving the performance of products, services and business processes. TQM stands for– 
(a) Total Quality Management (b) Total Quality Marketing (c) Total Quantity Management 
(d) Total Queries Management (e) Total Quality Manipulation (Ans : a)

28. When backed by buying power, wants become 
(a) self-esteem needs (b) demand (c) exchanges (d) physical needs (e) social needs (Ans : b)

29. The philosophy of product centered marketing' concept is– 
(a) right products for the customers (b) make and sell (c) make what the market wants 
(d) sense and respond (e) selling on product benefits (Ans : e)

30. The customer's evaluation of the difference between all the benefits and all the costs of a market offering relative to those of competing offers is called 
(a) Customer perceived value (b) Customer expectation (c) Customer satisfaction 
(d) Customer loyalty (e) Customer relationship (Ans : a)

31. Button market is where– 
(a) capital is disposed (b) gold is purchased and sold (c) shares are purchased 
(d) production of silver takes place (e) investment are made (Ans : e)

32. Especially in large firms, a sales force frequently is specialised in some organisational fashion. Which of the following is not one of such specialisations? 
(a) Customer specialisation (b) Major accounts specialisatibn (c) Product specialisation 
(d) Geographic specialisatlon (e) Economic order specialisation (Ans : e)

33. Greater consumer control means that, in building customer relationships, companies can no longer rely on marketing by intrusion. The most practiced marketing is– 
(a) conversion (b) delivery (c) retention (d) attraction (e) attention (Ans : c)

34. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, sense of belonging is grouped in– 
(a) Esteem needs (b) Social needs (c) Safety needs (d) Physiological needs (e) Self-actualisation needs (Ans : b)

35. Michael Porter has identified five forces that determine the intrinsic long-run attractiveness of a market segment. Which of the following would not be among Porter's five forces? 
(a) Threat of buyers' growing bargaining power (b) Threat of substitute products (c) Threat of technological partners 
(d) Threat of intense segment rivalry (e) Threat of new entrants (Ans : c)

36. The unplanned static or distortion during the communication process, which results in the receivers' getting a different message then the one that the sender sent is the– 
(a) response (b) feedback (c) noise (d) decoding (e) encoding (Ans : c)

37. If-a MNC like Nestle varied the elements of the marketing mix to suit the countries in which it sold its products, which type of strategy would it be following? 
(a) Differentiated (b) Undifferentiated (c) Standardised (d) Adapted (e) Concentrated (Ans : d)

38. Under which of the following company orientations toward the market place would we expect to get 'better economical' falacy? 
(a) Marketing concept (b) Holistic marketing concept (c) Production concept 
(d) Selling concept (e) Product concept (Ans : c)

39. If a company focuses on only one or a few market segments instead of small share of a large market, the same is– 
(a) Segment marketing (b) Conceptual marketing (c) Mass marketing (d) Micro marketing (e) Niche marketing (Ans : e)

40. An estimate the total financial value of the brand is– 
(a) Brand valuation (b) Brand tracking (c) Brand auditing (d) Brand partitioning (e) Brand equity (Ans : a)

41. The total combined customer value of all the company's current and potential customers is called– 
(a) Customer share (b) Customer delight (c) Customer loyalty (d) Customer orientation (e) Customer equity (Ans : e)

42. We can say that a ………. has three characteristics. (1) It is a source of competitive advantage in that it makes a significant contribution to perceived customer benefits; (2) It has application in a wide variety of markets, and (3) It is difficult for competitors to imitate. 
(a) strategic business unit (b) core competency (c) business strategy (d) winning strategy (e) core technology (Ans : b)

43. Which demographic segmentation divides buyers into different groups based on social class, lifestyle or personality characteristics? 
(a) Age and life cycle segmentation (b) Gender segmentation (c) Age segmentation 
(d) Psycho graphic segmentation (e) Income segmentation (Ans : d)

44. The internet version of word of mouth marketing is termed as– 
(a) Viral marketing (b) Web marketing (c) Channel marketing (d) Network marketing (e) Virtual marketing (Ans : a)

45. ………. is the development, interpretation and communication of decision oriented information to be used in all phases of marketing process. 
(a) Marketing forecast (b) Market intelligence (c) Market planning 
(d) Marketing research (e) Marketing information system (Ans : e)

46. GATT is more than 60 years old treaty designed to promote world trade by reducing tariff and other international trade barriers. GATT stands for– 
(a) General Aspects on Tariff and Trade (b) General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (c) Geneva Agreement on Trade and Tariff 
(d) General Allowance for Trade and Tariff (e) Geneva Agreement on Traffic or Trade (Ans : b)

47. People differ greatly in their readiness to try new products. Which of the following do not belong to the adapter categorisation on the basis of relation time of adopter of innovators? 
(a) Innovators (b) Laggards (c) Early majority (d) Late majority (e) Super majority (Ans : b)

48. As per BCG Matrix of classification of SBUs of an organisation, Cash cows are SBUs that typically generate– 
(a) large Awareness levels but few sales (b) problems for product managers often (c) high industry growth 
(d) more cash than that can be invested profitably in its own business (e) paper losses in the long run (Ans : c)

49. A strategy of pricing involves using price as in a competitive weapon in order to push competitors out of market or eliminate competitors. 
(a) bargain (b) psychological (c) premium (d) advanced (e) predatory (Ans : e)

50. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is an autonomous apex– 
(a) consultative body (b) statutory body (c) advisory body (d) cooperative body (e) corporate body (Ans : b) 

Financial Awareness Practice Questions for Bank Exams

1. In the case of granting loan against a life insurance policy, the banker should see:
a) The existence of insurable interest
b) The surrender value
c) The admission of age
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

2. In Mutual Funds, NAV is the price of ___
a) Entire fund value
b) One unit of a fund
c) Surrender value
d) Average value of shares
e) Dividends paid in a year

3. New Lending Rate on Bank Loans is now calculated as per:
a) Bench Mark Prime Lending Rate (BPLR)
b) Base Rate
c) Prime Lending Rate (PLR)
d) Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)
e) Risk Based Rate.

4. According to new norms anyone would be able to register a company in India in how many days?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 7
d) 1
e) 3

5. Naina Lal Kidwai is an independent non-executive director of:
a) Altico Capital
b) Reliance Capital
c) Infrastructure Development Finance Company
d) Shriram Transport Finance
e) None of the above

6. Which Indian bank has launched iWork@Home programme for its women employees?
a) HDFC
b) Axis bank
c) ICICI Bank
d) IDBI Bank
e) SBI

7. Who is the present MD and CEO of Multi Commodity Exchange?
a) Balasubramaniam Venkatramani
b) Mrugank Paranjape
c) Manoj Vaish
d) Praveen Kumar Singhal
e) Mansi Aggarwal

8. Flipkart has launched an online wallet-Flipkart Money. What purpose does E-wallet serve?
a) E-wallet is an online prepaid account under which user can deposit money in advance and can be used as payment
b) E-wallet is an offline prepaid account where one can stock money to be used when required
c) E-wallet is an online prepaid account under which user can purchase online and they can pay later.
d) E-wallet is a feature of web browser that allows a user to store personal details for identification purpose
e) None of the above

9. The bank does not open a saving account in the name of:
a) Government Departments
b) Municipal Corporations/ Committees
c) Panchayat Samities
d) State Housing Boards
e) All the above

10. The Reserve Bank of India publishes the classification of demand deposits with the commercial banks. Which of the following are included in demand deposits?
a) Fixed deposits held as security for advances is a classification of time deposits
b) Deposits held as security for advances which are repayable on demand
c) Current deposits
d) Demand liabilities portion of saving bank deposits
e) b, c and d

11. Time deposits include:
a) Fixed deposits
b) Cash certificates, recurring deposits
c) Time liabilities portion of saving bank deposits
d) Staff security deposits
e) All of the above

12. Which of the following is included in the banking reforms in India?
a) To strengthen risk management
b) Providing easy credit to all
c) Provide guaranteed subsidy from the government
d) Both b and c
e) None of the above

13. Which of the following Nation is not a member country of Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)?
a) India
b) Kazakhstan
c) Tajikistan
 d) China
e) Russia

14. What is the purpose for RBI allowing RRBs to open their branches in tier-II cities without asking
for permit?
a) To empower RRBs with the powers that RBI has
b) To increase the reach of banking service in tier-II cities.
c) To generate money from tier-II cities
d) To increase the number of RRBs more than other commercial bank in tier-II cities
e) None of the above

15. Which of the following is not associated with risks related to risk management in banks?
a) Credit risk
b) Market risk
c) Fund risk
d) Operational risk
e) None of the these

16. Which was the first Indian commercial bank wholly owned and managed by Indians opened in
the year 1911?
a) Bank of Madras
b) Central Bank of India
c) State Bank of India
d) Hindustan Bank
e) Union Bank of India

17. Financial activities tax and Financial stability contribution is proposed by ?
a) G-8
b) SAARC Summit (second)
c) G-20
d) SAARC Summit (First)
e) None of the above

18. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about promissory note?
a) It is always in writing
b) It has an unconditional undertaking called promise
c) The promise is to pay money
d) The money is to be pay money
e) All the above

19. On recommendation in which of the following committee NABARD was established?
a) C. Rangarajan Committee
b) Vijay Kelkar Committee
c) Sivaraman Committee
d) Chelliah Committee
e) None of the above

20. Money lent in the money market for one day is referred as:
a) Notice money
b) Long term loan
c) Short term loan
d) Call money
e) None of these

21. Returning a particular cheque of a customer unpaid by the bank is known as:
a) Bouncing of cheque
b) Dishonour of cheque
c) Cancellation of cheque
d) Honouring of cheque
e) None of these

22. Apex Bank for agriculture is___
a) RBI
b) NABARD
c) SEBI
d) ICICI
e) None of these

23. Dow Jones is the stock index of 30 significant stocks traded in__
a) India
b) Singapore
c) London
d) None of these
e) New York

24. Expand the term ALM used in Banking/Finance sector?
a) Asset Liability Mismatch
b) Asset Liability Maturity
c) Asset Liability Management
d) Asset Liability Manpower
e) None of these

25. The main advantages of core banking Solutions are:
a) Branches are connected to a central host
b) Branch automation modules and delivery channels are incorporated
c) Transactions are done centrally and online
d) A Branch Customer is converted into a Bank Customer
e) All of above

26. The short fall in Prior Sector Lending by banks is to be deposited with RIDF. Which of the following statement is not correct with regard to RIDF?
a) Domestic banks deposit short fall in priority sector lending targets, or weaker section lending
or agriculture lending in RIDF.
b) RIDF corpus is estimated annually
c) Interest is Bank Rate less 2% to 4% and period of deposit for RDIF is determined by RBI
d) Amount deposited in RIDF by banks is not eligible investment for priority sector classification
e) None of the above

27. Maximum compensation an Ombudsman is empowered to award in respect of deficiency in service of the Credit Card operations is:
a) Rs. 50,000
b) Rs.1 lack
c) Rs. 5 lack
d) Rs. 10 lack
e) Rs 50,000

28. Which of the following organisation was established as a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India with the purpose of providing long term industrial finance?
a) ICICI Ltd.
b) IDBI Ltd.
c) IFCI Ltd.
d) Development Credit Bank of India (DCB)
e) None of the above

29. Treasury bills are issued by ____ through ___ for maturities of 91 days, 182 days and 364 days for pre-determined amounts.
a) RBI, GOI
b) GOI, RBI
c) RBI, Exim bank
d) GOI, Exim bank
e) RBI, SBI

30. Liquidity with a banker means:
a) Cash on Hand
b) Cash and Bank balances
c) Short-term current assets to convert into cash
d) All of above
e) None of the above

31. Cardinal principles of lending are
a) Safety and liquidity
b) Profitability and diversification of risks
c) Purpose and security
d) Only a and c
e) All of a to c

32. Working capital requirement depends upon___?
a) Level of activity
b) Types of business carried
c) Nature of Production cycle
d) All the above
e) None

33. Which of the following statements regarding CP is not correct?
a) CP is a negotiable instrument
b) CP is issued in the form of a promissory note.
c) Banks can invest in CP if it is issued in demat form
d) CP, being a tradable instrument, carries liquidity risk.
e) Minimum amount of CP should be Rs. 5.00 lack

34. A minor for whom the court has appointed a guardian attains majority on completion of:
a) 21 years
b) 18 years
c) 15 years
d) 17 years
e) 20 years

35. Garnishee order is issued by a__
a) Police officer
b) Revenue officer
c) CID
d) Bank
e) Court

36. The main function of an Asset Management Company is to:
a) Hold the securities of various schemes
b) Manage the funds by making investments in various types of securities
c) Hold its property for the benefit of the unit holders
d) Act on behalf of SEBI
e) All the above

37. The first insurance company was started in India in 1818 at:
a) Kolkata
b) Chennai
c) Mumbai
d) New Delhi
e) Allahabad

38. CIBIL as a credit Information Agency caters to:
a) Consumer segments
b) Commercial segments
c) Both commercial and consumer segments
d) Nationalized Banks only
e) Private Banks only

ANSWERS:
1) d 2) b 3) d 4) d 5) a 6) c 7) b 8) a 9) e 10) a
11) e 12) a 13) a 14) b 15) c 16) b 17) c 18) e 19) c 20) d
21) b 22) b 23) e 24) c 25) e 26) d 27) b 28) b 29) b 30) d
31) e 32) d 33) d 34) a 35) e 36) b 37) a 38) c